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NO.1 You need to prevent several users in the Miami office from establishing more than two
concurrent Exchange ActiveSync connections to the Exchange Server organization. The solution must
affect only the users in the Miami office.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)
A. Create a new throttling policy that has the Organization scope.
B. Create a new throttling policy that has the Global scope.
C. Create a new throttling policy that has the Regular scope.
D. Run the Set-ThrottlingPolicyAssociation cmdlet.
E. Run the Set-ThrottlingPolicy cmdlet.
F. Remove the default throttling policy.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You need to configure the address books to meet the business goal for the finance department.
Which four cmdlets should you use?
A. Set-MailUser, New-OfflineAddressBook, New-AddressBookPolicy, and New-GlobalAddressList
B. Set-MailUser, New-OfflineAddressBook, New-GlobalAddressList, and New-AddressList
C. Set-Mailbox, New-DistributionGroup, New-AddressBookPolicy. and New-AddressList
D. Set-Mailbox, New-AddressBookPolicy, New-GlobalAddressList, and New-AddressList
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user fails to connect to his mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. The user successfully
connects to the mailbox by using an Exchange ActiveSync-enabled mobile device and Outlook Web
App.
You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to the mailbox by using Outlook
Anywhere.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Outlook Connectivity Test
B. Microsoft Exchange RPC Extractor
C. Microsoft Exchange Server Profile Analyzer
D. Exchange Server MAPI Editor
Answer: A

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains several custom RBAC management
roles.
You need to identify which RBAC scopes must be used to meet the following requirements:
- Manage only the mailboxes of the users in the sales department.
- Manage the properties of all the mailbox databases.
Which RBAC scopes should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate RBAC scopes to the
correct requirements. Each RBAC scope may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may
need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Answer:

NO.5 You deploy a server that has the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server role and Client Access
server role installed.
You need to configure anti-spam to meet the following requirements:
- Email messages sent from the Internet to a distribution list named Executives must be rejected.
- Email messages that contain the words casino and jackpot must be rejected, unless they were sent
to legal@contoso.com.
Which three cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
three.)
A. Add ContentFilterPhrase
B. Set-ContentFilterConfig
C. Set-TransportConfig
D. Set-SenderReputationConfig
E. Set-RecipientFilterConfig
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group
(DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has two members.
You create a mailbox database copy for each database on each DAG member.
You plan to implement a service level agreement (SLA) that meets the following requirements:
All deleted mailboxes must be recoverable for up to six months after they are deleted.
When a mailbox is recovered, the entire contents of the mailbox must be recovered.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. Get-Mailbox | Set-Mailbox -RetainDeletedItemsFor 180.00:00:00
B. Get-MailboxDatabase | Set-MailboxDatabase -MailboxRetention 180.00:00:00
C. Get-MailboxDatabase | Set-MailboxDatabase -DeletedItemRetention 180.00:00:00
D. Get-Mailbox | Set-Mailbox -Audit Log Age Limit 180.00:00:00
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Set-MailboxDatabase Get-MailboxDatabase | Set-MailboxDatabase -MailboxRetention 180.00:00:00
The MailboxRetention parameter specifies the length of time to keep deleted mailboxes. To specify a
value, enter it as a time span: dd.hh:mm:ss where d = days, h = hours, m = minutes, and s = seconds.
For example, to specify a 15-hour interval, enter 15:00:00. The maximum length of time to retain
mailboxes is 24,855 days. By default, deleted mailboxes are retained for 30 days. This attribute
applies to all mailboxes in this mailbox database.

NO.7 How would you disable the anti malware filtering and ensure that engine updates from
microsoft are downloaded and updated.
A. Disable-Antimalwareagent.ps1
B. Set-malwarefilteringserver
C. Disable-Antimalwarescanning.ps1 (probable option)
D. Update-MalwareFilteringServer.ps1 (guessed option)
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two Client Access servers and two
Mailbox servers.
You configure DNS round robin on the Client Access servers. All of the host (A) and alias (CNAME)
records in the DNS zone are configured to have a TTL value of 10 minutes.
You need to recommend a solution to fail over client connections to a Client Access server
automatically if Internet Information Services (US) fails. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Deploy a Client Access server array.
B. Reduce the TTL values on all of the A and CNAME records to one minute.
C. Deploy a hardware load balancing solution.
D. Deploy Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each Client Access server.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
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Last Update: 07-28,2015

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Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa82/configuration/guide/intro.html

NO.2 Which two countermeasures can mitigate STP root bridge attacks? (Choose two.)
A. root guard
B. BPDU filtering
C. Layer 2 PDU rate limiter
D. BPDU guard
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
The BPDU guard feature is designed to allow network designers to keep the active network topology
predictable. BPDU guard is used to protect the switched network from the problems that may be
caused by the receipt of BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them. The receipt of
unexpected BPDUs may be accidental or may be part of an unauthorized attempt to add a switch to
the network. BPDU guard is best deployed toward user-facing ports to prevent rogue switch network
extensions by an attacker. The root guard feature of Cisco switches is designed to provide a way to
enforce the placement of root bridges in the network. Root guard limits the switch ports out of which
the root bridge may be negotiated. If a root-guard-enabled port receives BPDUs that are superior to
those that the current root bridge is sending, then that port is moved to a root-inconsistent state,
which is effectively equal to an STP listening state, and no data traffic is forwarded across that port.

NO.3 What are three features of IPsec tunnel mode? (Choose three.)
A. IPsec tunnel mode supports multicast.
B. IPsec tunnel mode is used between gateways.
C. IPsec tunnel mode is used between end stations.
D. IPsec tunnel mode supports unicast traffic.
E. IPsec tunnel mode encrypts only the payload.
F. IPsec tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.4 DRAG DROP
Answer:
Explanation:

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
You are a network manager for your organization. You are looking at your Syslog server reports.
Based on the Syslog message shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Service timestamps have been globally enabled.
B. This is a normal system-generated information message and does not require further investigation.
C. This message is unimportant and can be ignored.
D. This message is a level 5 notification message.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12.2_55_se/configu
ration/guide/swlog.html
System Log Message Format
System log messages can contain up to 80 characters and a percent sign (%), which follows the
optional sequence number or time-stamp information, if configured. Messages appear in this
format:
seq no:timestamp: %facility-severity-MNEMONIC:description (hostname-n)
The part of the message preceding the percent sign depends on the setting of the service
sequence-numbers, service timestamps log datetime, service timestamps log datetime [localtime]
[msec] [show-timezone], or service timestamps log uptime global configuration command.
seq no:
Stamps log messages with a sequence number only if the service sequence-numbers global
configuration command is configured.
For more information, see the "Enabling and Disabling Sequence Numbers in Log Messages"
section.
timestamp formats:
mm/dd hh:mm:ss
or
hh:mm:ss (short uptime)
or
d h (long uptime)
Date and time of the message or event. This information appears only if the service timestamps
log [datetime | log] global configuration command is configured.
For more information, see the "Enabling and Disabling Time Stamps on Log Messages"
section.facility
The facility to which the message refers (for example, SNMP, SYS, and so forth). For a list of
supported facilities, see Table 29-4.severity
Single-digit code from 0 to 7 that is the severity of the message. For a description of the severity
levels, see Table 29-3.
MNEMONIC
Text string that uniquely describes the message.
description
Text string containing detailed information about the event being reported.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12.2_55_se/configu
r
ation/guide/swlog.html
This example shows part of a logging display with the service timestamps log datetime global
configuration command enabled:
*Mar 1 18:46:11: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36) (Switch-2)

NO.6 Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Spam protection
B. Outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. Email encryption
E. DDoS protection
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/vpndevc/ps10128/ps10154/data-sheetc78-
729751.html
Product Overview Over the past 20 years, email has evolved from a tool used primarily by technical
and research professionals to become the backbone of corporate communications. Each day, more
than 100 billion corporate email messages are exchanged. As the level of use rises, security becomes
a greater priority. Mass spam campaigns are no longer the only concern. Today, spam and malware
are just part of a complex picture that includes inbound threats and outbound risks. Cisco@ Email
Security solutions defend mission-critical email systems with appliance, virtual, cloud, and hybrid
solutions. The industry leader in email security solutions, Cisco delivers:

NO.7 Which statement about the Atomic signature engine is true?
A. It can perform signature matching on a single packet only.
B. It can perform signature matching on multiple packets.
C. It can examine applications independent of the platform.
D. It can flexibly match patterns in a session.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which option describes a function of a virtual VLAN?
A. A virtual VLAN creates a logically partitioned LAN to place switch ports in a separate broadcast
domain.
B. A virtual VLAN creates trunks and links two switches together.
C. A virtual VLAN adds every port on a switch to its own collision domain.
D. A virtual VLAN connects many hubs together.
Answer: A

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MB2-704 Exam Questions, MB2-707 Exam Tests

NO.1 You choose a case from the customer support queue. Your company mandates that all requests
with customers be tracked regardless of the outcome.
You call the customer and learn that the case was submitted on your company's customer portal by
mistake.
What should you do?
A. Cancel the case.
B. Delete the case.
C. Resolve the case.
D. Reactivate the case.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need a dashboard that shows your cases only. Which dashboard should you use?
A. Customer Service Operations
B. Customer Service Representative
C. Customer Service Performance
D. Sales Performance Dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.3 You create an opportunity and need to add products.
What should you do before adding the opportunity products?
A. Set a price list.
B. Change the revenue setting to user provided.
C. Set estimated revenue.
D. Change the revenue setting to system calculated.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Ref: http://crmbook.powerobjects.com/basics/microsoft-dynamics-crm-salesprocess/advanced-
sales-processes/

NO.4 A customer can use 80 hours of phone support and 20 hours of email support, according to
the agreement you set up with this customer.
You need to configure an entitlement.
What should you do?
A. Create an entitlement with two service level agreements (SLAs) for each type of support.
B. Create an entitlement, and link to two cases for each type of support. OC
C. Create an entitlement, with two entitlement channels for each type of support.
D. Create an entitlement, and link to two templates for each type of support.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Ref: http://inogic.com/blog/2014/06/entitlements-in-dynamics-crm-2013-spring-release/

NO.5 What is required to view a Dynamic Excel report?
A. Have Outlook Client installed.
B. Create the export from a System View.
C. Have system administrator rights.
D. Save the Advanced Find query in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You configure a connection to Microsoft Social Listening but cannot see social insights data in
Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
What should you do to make social insights visible in Dynamics CRM?
A. Ensure that each of your social listening search topics are assigned a category.
B. Configure social listening search topics and visuals.
C. In system settings, change the default setting for the Disable Social Engagement option.
D. Select the Reset Social Insights option to refresh the social insights data.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn659847(v=crm.6).aspx

NO.7 A customer with an open opportunity selects one of your company's competitors.
You need to change the status of this opportunity so that the opportunity no longer shows in Open
Opportunities.
What should you do?
A. Mark all activities on the opportunity as complete.
B. Close the opportunity as lost.
C. Change the estimated revenue to zero.
D. Activate all draft quotes related to the opportunity.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Ref: http://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/close-an-opportunityas-won-
or-lost.aspx

NO.8 You are a sales representative at a trade show.
A trade show attendee leaves a business card at your company's booth.
You need to enter the attendee's information into Microsoft Dynamics CRM for the sales team to
qualify.
Which record type should you create?
A. Contact
B. Account
C. Opportunity
D. Lead
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/gg328442.aspx

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NO.1 Which table characteristic is a good attribute for the exploitation of hash access?
A. At least 20 rows fit on a data page.
B. DB2 uses range scans to access rows in the table.
C. The size of individual rows in the table vary greatly.
D. DB2 uses sequential lookups to access data in the table.
Answer: D


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NO.2 You want to convert a segmented table space into a partition-by-growth table space. You
execute the following ALTER statement:
ALTER TABLESPACE DB1TS1 MAXPARTITIONS 5;
What should be your next step?
A. COPY the table space.
B. REORG the table space.
C. REBUILD all of the indexes.
D. DROP the segmented table space.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two options can be specified in order to access a system-period temporal table for a
specific point in time guaranteeing accurate results?
A. A period-specification placed in the FROM clause of a subselect.
B. A period-specification placed in the WHERE clause of a subselect
C. A SELECT statement predicate against the transaction start ID of the base table.
D. A predicate against the start and end columns of the base table placed in the WHERE clause of a
subselect.
E. A SET of the CURRENT TEMPORAL SYSTEM_TIME special register to a non-null value prior to a
SELECT against the temporal table.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which is NOT a valid privilege/authority for executing CREATE TYPE (array)?
A. SYSADM
B. SYSOPR
C. SYSCTRL
D. CREATEIN on the schema
Answer: A

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NO.5 An Audit report shows that data on the CUSTOMER table was successfully updated by an
unknown USERID.
What other DB2 supplied information could be reviewed to learn more about the updated data?
A. BSDS
B. SYSIBM.SYSPACKDEP
C. DB2 Active and Archive Logs
D. SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which DB2 subsystem parameter limits the number of concurrent active TSO requests?
A. IDBACK
B. IDFORE
C. MAXDBAT
D. CONDBAT
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the following output:
DSNV4011 _DB2D DISPLAY THREAD REPORT FOLLOWS DSNV402I _DB2D ACTIVE THREADS NAME ST A
REQ ID AUTHID PLAN ASID TOKEN DB2CALL T 17039 BBISS BBISS 00AF 19855 TSO T * 3 KSTTEST
KSTTEST 0135 20172 A51OTEST N* 13 CICSTEST 0125 19625 You receive a call that user KSTTEST is
holding resources and needs to be canceled.
Which command should be issued?
A. -CANCEL THREAD( 3)
B. -CANCEL THREAD(20172)
C. -CANCEL USER(KSTTEST)
D. User KSTTEST does not hold an active connection, no way he blocks anything.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about transport-layer security?
A. It is loosely coupled with the transport-layer protocol.
B. It is an end-to-end security mechanism.
C. It prevents the captured data from being replayed at a later time.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are using an open source integration framework in your project. However, key interfaces
do not explicitly define several strange conditions you have repeatedly seen while testing.
Which option is the name given to the anti pattern described above?
A. Composite View
B. Leaky Abstraction
C. Asynchronous Interaction
D. Golden Hammer
Answer: B

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Explanation:
All non-trivial abstractions, to some degree, are leaky.
An abstraction that works most of the time, but where a detail of the underlying complexity cannot
be ignored, thus leaking complexity out of the abstraction back into the software that uses the
abstraction.

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tier;
and for business processes coded as stateless session beans. When you add new code to the stateless
session beans to address new accounting requirements, without changing the interface, you discover
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What might be the cause of this problem?
A. The presentation tier is relying on validation logic in the business tier.
B. The browser is caching out-of-date versions of the JSF components.
C. The business processes are not rigorously encapsulated in the session beans.
D. The new session beans have been deployed incorrectly, and proper deployment will resolve the
problem.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the architect for XYZ bank. XYZ is redesigning their online banking offering and you
need to ensure that the new design follows security best practices for the JEE platform.
Select three security best practices for JEE applications.
A. Schedule regular penetration testing.
B. Log all security related application events.
C. Implement an exception-handling strategy.
D. Encrypt data, both on the wire and at rest.
E. Use both programmatic and declarative security.
F. Treat users as untrusted even when authenticated.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 While analyzing an existing web application, you observe the following issues in the source
code:
-Duplicatecontrol code is scattered throughout various view. -Businessand presentationlogicare
mixed within these view.
The next phase of the project involves refactoring the existing code to address these two issues.
Which design pattern, if employed in the refactoring exercise, would most directly address the two
issues?
A. Service to Worker
B. Dispatcher view
C. DAO
D. Composite View
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.vincehuston.org/j2ee/corepatterns.html(see 'service to worker')

NO.6 Which two functions are essential parts of a service oriented architecture (SOA) infrastructure?
A. The service provider, which executes business logic in a stateless fashion
B. The service consumer, which accesses services from the service repository
C. The service repository, which stores software component metadata
D. The service broker, which delivers well-defined service-level agreements
E. The service look-up facility, which provides a central resource for naming and access
Answer: A,C

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Which three features of JPA make it the most appropriate technology to use in building the
persistence layer of the application?
A. JPA ensures thread safe semantics
B. JPA ensures optimal database access logic
C. JPA does not require an EJB container
D. JPA provides vendor-neutral database access
E. JPA provides ACID semantics
F. JPA provides transparent scalability
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this
substantial load, the database is over bridged and fails frequently. All data, included critical user
records and temporary session data, is stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a
new database system cannot be installed.
Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. Creating more entity beans to optimize interaction wild the database
B. Refactoring the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. Refactoring the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. Adding more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS.
Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname abc.com
IP Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim /etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)

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NO.2 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login shell)
OR
# system-config-users

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NO.1 You ask a technician to deploy Dynamic CRM Server 2015.
Once the technician completes the deployment you discover that Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server
2015 was deployed.
You need to tell the technician what to use in the future to ensure that the Server edition is
deployed.
What should you tell the technician to use?
A. A different version of Microsoft SQL Server
B. A different product key
C. A different version of Windows Server
D. A different version of the installer
Answer: B

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Explanation:
If have your enterprise key you can just go to deployment manager and change it. Deployment
Manager >> Right Click >> Change Product Key. However, if you are not able to upgrade it by
changing the license key than other option you have is to uninstall CRM Server (Workgroup) and
install enterprise version that you have downloaded from download center.

NO.2 You have an Internet-facing deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains only one server.
Users report that they must add the TCP port number to the URL in the Internet Explorer address bar
to access the Dynamics CRM server.
You need to provide to the users a simple URL that does not contain the TCP port.
What should you do?
A. From the Dynamics CRM server, create a host header.
B. From each user's computer, add the URL to the Local intranet zone.
C. From Active Directory, deploy a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. From the Dynamics CRM server, modify the port settings of the default website.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which data encryption technology does Dynamics CRM 2015 use to encrypt password fields in
system entities?
A. Encrypting File System (EFS)
B. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
C. Bitlocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker)
D. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Microsoft Dynamics CRM uses standard Microsoft SQL Server ; cell level encryption for a set of
default entity attributes that contain sensitive information, such as user names and email passwords.
* The use of SQL TDE - Transparent Data Encryption is a great way to secure your Microsoft Dynamics
CRM systems, especially when they contain sensitive data like credit cards or social security numbers.

NO.4 Which statement correctly describes connectivity to Dynamics CRM 2015 by using a Network
Load Balancing (NLB) cluster?
A. All Dynamics CRM 2015 servers that are members of the cluster must have the same IP address.
B. All Dynamics CRM web application clients will connect to a management IP address that is in the
same subnet as the Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
C. All Dynamics CRM 2015 servers that are members of the cluster must have the Failover Clustering
feature installed.
D. All Dynamics CRM web application clients will connect to a virtual IP address that redirects
connections to several Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Configuration example:
Network Load Balanced (NLB) virtual server consisting of the following two nodes:
Front End Server: Running Windows Server and Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server with the
Front End Server role.
Front End Server: Another Windows Server running Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server with the Front
End Server role.
Incorrect:
not C: Failover clustering is configured on SQL Servers not on CRM Front End servers.

NO.5 You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server.
You need to make the deployment available to users on the Internet.
Which action should you perform first from Deployment Manager?
A. Run the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
B. Configure the Incoming Email setting.
C. Disable the server.
D. Run the Configure Claims-Based Authentication Wizard.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Configure an Internet-facing Deployment using the Configure Internet-Facing Deployment Wizard.

NO.6 You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Dynamics CRM and Microsoft SQL Server 2014 are installed on the same server. The Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions are not installed.
You need to identify which action can be performed.
Which action should you identify?
A. Run the default reports.
B. Run a custom SQL-based report.
C. Upload fetch-based reports.
D. Schedule SQL-based reports to run.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You don't need Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions to run Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
However, if you want to create, use, or schedule reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM, you must install
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions. Additionally, you have to install it if you want to
create an organization or import an organization, such as when you migrate from an earlier version of
Microsoft Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.

NO.7 You are responsible for a large global deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 for users located in
France and the United States.
All of the users have client computers that run Windows 8.1 and have Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
for Outlook installed. The base language is English.
You plan to upgrade Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook to the most recent version.
The users in France request that their base language be French.
You successfully upgrade Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook for the users in the United States.
The upgrade for the users in France fails.
You need to identify the cause of the upgrade failure.
What should you identify?
A. You can upgrade the client only if the base languages match.
B. You failed to install the French language pack for Windows before you started the upgrade.
C. You failed to install the French language pack on the server.
D. You failed to set the base language on the server to French.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
To upgrade CRM for Outlook, the base language of CRM 2015 for Outlook must match the base
language of CRM 2013 for Outlook.

NO.8 You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored
in the email message header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Answer: D

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Explanation:
When an incoming email message is processed by the Email Router, the system extracts information
associated with the email message subject, sender address, and recipients' addresses that link the
email activity to other Microsoft Dynamics CRM records. This correlation process, also known as
smart matching, uses the following criteria to match received email message information to email
activities:
*Subject matching. Prefixes, such as RE: or Re:, and letter case are ignored. For example,
email message subjects with Re: hello and Hello would be considered a match.
*Sender and recipient matching. The system calculates the number of exact sender and recipient
email addresses in common.
When the matching process is complete, the system selects the owner and the object of the incoming
email message.

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NO.1 A customer needs faster response time from their database server and is considering
purchasing POWERS. They are familiar with Easy Tier, and have heard that they can use it locally on
some servers.
Which feature(s) would enable this function?
A. Enhanced backplane (EJOP)
B. Standard backplane (EJON)
C. Enhanced backplane (EJOP) with the Split backplane feature (EJOS)
D. Standard backplane (EJON) with optional SSD cage (EJTM)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is used to provide basic deployment and management firmware updates, host monitoring
and Virtual Machine templates of Power KVM hosts from a GUI?
A. virsh
B. PowerVC
C. Kimchi
D. HMC
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a requirement for four partitions, each with 1TB of Storage They want to put a
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Which POWER8 option accomplishes this?
A. Order a 6-core machine with the Expanded Function backplane with (18) SFF SAS 283GB drives, all
the drives owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
B. Order a 6-core machine with the Split backplane, with each side having (4) 283GB drives for two
partitions and two sets of EJ03 Disk Controllers each connected to a 5887 with (4) 283GB disks each
for the other two partitions.
C. Order a4-core machine with the Expanded Function backplane with (10) SFF SAS 571GB drives, all
the drives owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
D. Order a 4-core machine with the Split backplane with (18) SFF SAS 283GB drives, all the drives
owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature is recommended to move memory resources from one LPAR to another?
A. Dynamic LPAR operation
B. Active Memory Sharing
C. Active Memory Expansion
D. Live Partition Mobility
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer will purchase an SB24 server to replace a Power 520 with IBM I V5R4. Middleware
integration and securing business critical data is important to the customer.
What will allow the customer to support all of the requirements?
A. Trusted Firewall and Trusted Surveyor
B. DB2 Row and Column Access Control
C. PowerSC
D. Tivoli Directory Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Customers to migrate to the 6-core Power6 520 S814, Which backplane RAID 5 provides the
best performance ?
A. detachable back with 6 + 6 SFF-3 bracket and the second SAS controller
B. with ( 12 ) SFF-3 bracket and integrated SAS storage controller backplane
C. with ( 18 ) SFF-3 bracket and dual SAS controllers and write cache storage backplane
D. detachable back with PCIe3 12GB Cache RAID SAS adapter and EXP24S of
Answer: B

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NO.7 Customers want to have a mix of the S824 SSD and HDD, using the extended functions ( 18 disks
) backplane (EJOP), and do not want to use the Easy Tier feature.
How to achieve ?
A. Use RAID 5T2 configure all drives.
B. on SSD and HDD ARRAY different configurations.
C. The SSD installed in EJTM 8-Bay 1.8 SSD cage.
D. Use backplane isolation, and put on the back side of the SSD , HDD on the other side .
Answer: B

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NO.8 What standard feature was added to the 4-core S814 to improve the RAS capability when
compared to a 4-core 720?
A. Chipkill Memory
B. RAID 0
C. PCIe Hot Plug Support
D. Alternate Processor Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.1 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared
twisted
pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

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NO.3 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is
damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D

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NO.4 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing
an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

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Special Processes in Procurement 8% - 12%
Inventory Management 8% - 12%
Procurement Process 8% - 12%
Master Data and Enterprise Structure 8% - 12%
Purchasing Optimization 8% - 12%
Configuring Master Data and Enterprise Structure 8% - 12%
Physical Inventory < 8%
Experience from Implementation < 8%
Material Requirements Planning < 8%
Valuation and Account Determination < 8%
Logistics Invoice Verification < 8%
Configuring Logistics Invoice Verification < 8%
Configuring Inventory Management < 8%
SAP Overview and Solution Manager < 8% 

 

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NO.1 Which of the following are SAP Solution Manager usage scenarios?(Choose two)
A. Legacy system data mapping
B. Implementation of SAP solutions
C. User productivity monitoring
D. Service desk
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which procurement elements can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?(Choose two)
A. Requests for quotation (RFQ)
B. Contract release orders
C. Purchase orders
D. Delivery schedules
Answer: B,C

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6. Which value of the creation indicator is shown in the tab Contact person when you create a
purchase requisition manually?
A. Production Order
B. Direct procurement
C. Realtime
D. Material requirements planning
Answer: C

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7. Where do you define a fixed vendor for a specific period in time?
A. In the info record at client level (regular vendor)
B. In the quota arrangement at plant level
C. In the source list at plant level
D. In the material master at plant level
Answer: C

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8. What are characteristics of material valuation at the moving average price?(Choose two)
A. If you book a subsequent debit for a quantity higher than the total quantity of valuated stock
then a price difference posting is generated.
B. If the price in the purchase order is different from the moving average price then a price
difference posting is generated at goods receipt.
C. The moving average price is equal to the total value divided by total quantity of valuated stock.
D. Goods movements are always valuated based on the moving average price from the material
master record.
Answer: A,C

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9. You have received an order confirmation from a vendor.
What do you have to do before you can enter the confirmed delivery date and confirmed quantity in
a purchase order item?
A. Set the Goods Receipt indicator.
B. Set the Confirmation Received indicator in the header.
C. Use a confirmation control key in the relevant purchase order item.
D. Set the Acknowledgement Required indicator in the vendor master of the relevant vendor.
Answer: C

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10. What does an account group control when you create vendor master records?(Choose three)
A. The partner determination procedure
B. The definition whether the vendor master record is a one-time account or not
C. The possible data retention levels
D. The reconciliation account in general ledger
E. The possible payment terms
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which are the configuration options that can be defined to post unplanned delivery
costs?(Choose three)
A. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to separate G/L accounts
B. The unplanned delivery costs are to be distributed prorated to calculated invoice items
C. The unplanned delivery costs can be posted by rules defined within a BAdI
D. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to a price difference account
E. The unplanned delivery costs are to be split in equal shares across the invoice items
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing?(Choose three)
A. The movement type short text and the reasons for movement
B. The indicator for automatic creation of storage location data in the material master record at the
time of the first goods receipt
C. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with the
movement type
D. The quantity and value updates for postings with the movement type
E. The account modification for transactions and events with active account grouping in the table of
account keys
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 In a vendor master record, you enter a different vendor as a partner with the partner role
(partner function) of Invoicing Party.
What is the function of this partner role in Materials Management?
A. This partner automatically receives copies of all messages relating to purchasing documents.
B. This partner is proposed when you enter an invoice with reference to purchase orders.
C. All unplanned delivery costs with reference to purchase orders are billed to this partner.
D. Return deliveries with reference to purchase orders must be sent to this partner.
Answer: B

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