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Exam Code: VCP-510
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5
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Exam Code: VCP5-DCV
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam
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NO.1 When would a license server be configured for vCenter Server 5.x?
A. When managing ESX 3.x servers
B. When the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) is used
C. Within the first 60 days
D. A standalone license server is installed by default
Answer: A

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Reference:http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=display
KC&externalId=1010704

NO.2 What is a benefit of vCenter Linked-Mode?
A. Allows the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) to manage multiple sites
B. Pools vRAM entitlement
C. Increases vCenter security
D. Increases vCenter reliability
Answer: B

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.vcenterh
ost.doc_50%2FGUID-EC40636E-0DD44A17-B163-5CFBDC31666C.html

NO.3 A series of Auto Deploy ESXi 5.x hosts, which utilize vSphere Standard Switches, are unable to
boot. In prior testing, all of the hosts were able to boot successfully.
Which two conditions might cause this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The Hosts are unable to connect to the SAN.
B. The TFTP server is down.
C. The DNS server is down.
D. The DHCP server is down.
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If the TFTP server is down, ESXi will not boot because it needs TFTP to get the information. Similarly,
when DHCP is down, it will not assign the IP addresses and ESXi needs IP address to boot properly.

NO.4 An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

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Explanation:
Operating system patches are related to operating system so they need a separate procedure
altogether. Same is the case with VMware tools and applications patches because applications are
stand alone pieces of code that need separate procedure to apply a patch.

NO.5 What are the three service offerings provided by a VMware-powered public cloud? (Choose
three.)
A. Committed
B. Transient
C. Dedicated
D. Highly Elastic
E. Basic
Answer: A,C,E

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/cloud/VMware-ServiceDef-Public-Cloud-11Q1-White-
Paper.pdf(page 6, see service offerings)

NO.6 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf(page 1, last
paragraph)

NO.7 A company is planning an upgrade from vSphere 4.x to vSphere 5. They currently have three
dual CPU servers licensed for ESXi 4.1 Advanced
Each server has 256GB of RAM installed.
Their virtual machines are sized three ways. Light. 1v CPU, 4GB RAM Medium. 2v CPU, 8GB RAM
Heavy. 4 vCPU, 12GB RAM
The Production workload consists of. 20 Light servers 20 Medium servers 2 Heavy servers
The Development workload consists of. 10 Light servers 10 Medium servers
How will vSphere 5 licensing impact their upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. They will need to purchase additional ESXi licenses.
B. They will be able to reduce their power consumption.
C. They will be restricted from powering on additional virtual machines.
D. A license upgrade will be needed to add vCPUs to the Heavy servers.
Answer: B,C

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Reference:http://www.gabesvirtualworld.com/vsphere-5-licensing-with-vram-isn%E2%80%99tthat-
bad-at-all/

NO.8 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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Explanation:
VMware Tools isn't a single application but a set of drivers, services and user processes that's
installed in a guest operating system. They add a wide assortment of functionality to
VMwareinfrastructures -- everything from improving color depth and video resolution in the
vSphere Client to memory optimization.
Typically, an outdated version of VMware Tools doesn't have an immediate impact. But with every
update to vSphere, you'll likely have to update VMware Tools on every virtual machine.

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NO.1 Which is an Information Assurance concept that ensures aP3Ocan supply information to the
business when needed?
A. Asset management
B. Configuration management
C. Availability
D. Confidentiality
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is a responsibility of theP3OSponsor role?
A. Ensure the portfolio delivers the required strategy
B. Secure the investment required to set up theP3O
C. Recruit the Portfolio Office staff members
D. Recommend an appropriate mix of programmes and projects
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is NOT a strategic planning or portfolio support function?
A. Prioritizing programmes within the portfolio
B. Providing a single flexible resource pool
C. Aligning programmes with strategic objectives
D. Providing oversight, scrutiny and challenge
Answer: B

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NO.4 WhichP3Omodel features a single permanent office providing strategic planning and portfolio
support?
A. P3Omodel with Hub Portfolio Offices
B. Organization Portfolio Office
C. Temporary Office
D. Virtual Office
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which is a function of strategic mapping software?
A. Distributes and shares learning among the PPM community
B. Models an organization's systems and processes
C. Matches programmes and projects to portfolio benefits and outcomes
D. Supports a common, integrated approach to risk management
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which is a purpose of the Consultancy and Performance Management role?
A. Assists with budget control
B. Creates, maintains and distributes good practice
C. Provides benefits realization support
D. Identifies, monitors and resolves issues
Answer: B

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7. What is used to assist senior managers to determine their core problems and the services to
be delivered by aP3Omodel?
A. Business process swimlanes
B. Knowledge management tools
C. Capacity planning for resource management
D. P3OValue Matrix
Answer: D

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8. Which is a functional area within aP3Omodel?
A. Hub Portfolio Office connected by spokes
B. COE functions or services
C. Virtual Office
D. Flexible resource pool
Answer: B

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9. How does aP3Omodel make a significant contribution to the successful delivery of an
organization's strategy?
A. Acts as risk owner of project risks to ensure common standards are applied
B. Provides quality information to enable senior management decisions on which projects to start
up
C. Helps operational managers determine business as usual priorities
D. Decides the appropriate priority of each programme and project
Answer: B

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10. Which functional area considers risk against the ability to achieve planned outcomes for a
specific business change?
A. Strategic planning/portfolio support
B. Delivery support
C. Project
D. COE
Answer: B

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11. Which is a key activity of the Identify' process in the permanentP3Olifecycle?
A. Delivering the new capability
B. Planning tranches of delivery
C. Analysing stakeholders and planning communications
D. Assessing the current state ofP3Oprovision
Answer: D

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12. Which describes how P3M3 assessments are used when implementing aP3O?
A. Document new processes to be followed
B. Define the skills needed in the implementation team
C. Develop a tranche-based plan that suits maturity levels
D. Assess project or programme complexity
Answer: C

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13. Which role's purpose is to facilitate the development of the portfolio, programme or project
dependency logs?
A. Change Control
B. Issue
C. Information Management
D. Planning and Estimating
Answer: D

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14. Which office within aP3Omodel provides delivery support to the'Identify' process of a
programme?
A. Temporary Project Office
B. Organization Portfolio Office
C. COE
D. Temporary Programme Office
Answer: B

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15. Which is a specified constraint that may impact the benefits delivered by implementing
aP3Omodel?
A. An organization's ability to adapt to change
B. Overall programme and project success rates
C. AP3Ochampion providing senior management commitment
D. Belief that complying with repeatable processes is bureaucratic
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C_SRM_72
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Supplier Relationship Management 7.2
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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business Planning and Consolidation 10.0
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NO.1 Which default function task type always includes Appset maintenance?
A. Administration
B. Primary
C. System
D. Secondary
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is best business practice to execute multiple iterations of a budgeting process in BPC?
A. Create a separate dimension.
B. Create a separate property.
C. Create a separate dimension member.
D. Create a separate application.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What solution for uploading master data into BPC for NetWeaver requires customer-specific
process types?
A. Loading data directly into the dimension member sheet
B. Loading data via a flat file using BPC Data Manager
C. Loading data via a flat file using SAP BW
D. Loading data from a SAP BW InfoObject into a BPC dimension using BPC Data Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which business rules are used in the consolidation monitor? (Choose three)
A. Account-based calculations
B. US eliminations
C. Eliminations and adjustments
D. Currency translation
E. Global definitions
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 You want to format your account members dynamically in an EVDRE report.
In which column do you have to enter the value 'NUMBERFORMAT=ACCOUNT.FORMAT'?
A. PARAMETERS
B. CRITERIA
C. FORMAT
D. USE
Answer: D

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NO.6 Who is notified when a step is completed using Business Process Flow?
A. BPF User
B. BPF Manager
C. BPF Owner
D. BPF Reviewer
Answer: C

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NO.7 During testing you notice that account descriptions are missing. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Import master data descriptions.
B. Refresh dimension members.
C. Import transaction data.
D. Import master data hierarchies.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What program can you use to validate the consistency of an application set after copying the
standard application set?
A. UJA_DATA_CHECKER
B. UJA_COPY_APPSET
C. UJA_APPSET_INFO
D. UJT_CHECK_TABLE_ENTRIES
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v3
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NO.1 Which two types of server tasks are shown in the Operations Center?
A. active
B. db reorgs
C. encrypted
D. completed
E. missed schedules
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
A:TSM Servers The status indicator shows whether the Tivoli Storage Manager servers that are
managed by the Operations Center are available to provide data protection services to clients. E:TSM
Clients A client is considered to be at risk if a problem occurs during its most recent scheduled
backup, or during a backup that starts within a specified time interval. The term backup also includes
archive operations for TivoliStorage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning clients. Use the
information that is shown in the TSM Clients section to check for failed or missed backups and to
determine whether backup schedules are running as expected.

NO.2 Which level of IBM Tivoli Storage Manager administrator authority includes the ability to
restore node data from a remote system to a local system?
A. storage
B. system
C. operator
D. client access
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Backup Operators group allows users to back up and restore files regardless of whether they
have read or write access to the files. Since this group has a limited set of user rights, some functions
are not available to members of the Backup Operators group.

NO.3 A storage pool contains backup data from several clients and has collocation by node enabled.
If collocation is disabled by setting collocation to No, what is the immediate effect on files already
stored in the storage pool?
A. There is no immediate effect on files that are already stored.
B. A reclamation process is immediately started to remove the collocated files.
C. All collocated backup data is deleted, and clients are required to perform a full backup.
D. A migration process is automatically started to move the collocated files to the copy pool.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What can be done so that a data center can maintain highly available restore and recovery
capabilities across data centers?
A. Use node replication.
B. Use active-data pools.
C. Put the storage pools on shared SAN volumes.
D. Use Disaster Recovery Manager to automate a server rebuild if needed.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM)
The TSM(Tivoli StorageManager)Disaster Recovery Manager is a feature that is included
with TSM Extended Edition andit is the part of the TSM application that can be used to
assist with the management of off-sitedisaster recovery.
Reference:A Brief Introduction to IBM Tivoli StorageManager Disaster Recovery Manager

NO.5 What is compatible with client-side deduplication?
A. SSL
B. NDMP
C. encryption
D. LAN-free backup
Answer: B

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Explanation:
When you configure client-side data deduplication, the following requirements must be met:
*The client and server must be at version 6.2.0 or later.
*(not D)Client-side deduplication cannot be used in combination with LAN-free backups.
*(not C)Files that are intended for deduplication must not be encrypted. Encrypted files
and files from encrypted file systems cannot be deduplicated.
Etc.

NO.6 What does the command query inclexcl show?
A. Details of which files are backed up.
B. The specific order in which files are backed up.
C. Which users have restore privileges for specific files.
D. The include/exclude statements in the order they will be processed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What additional level of security can be used during the transfer of data from client and server?
A. encryption
B. compression
C. deduplication
D. data shredding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can encrypt the data as well.

NO.8 There is a requirement to provide hot backups for a physical machine running Microsoft
Exchange Server 2010. What is a prerequisite?
A. Update the VSSPOLICY in the dsm.opt file to specify a management class.
B. Install IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Mail on the same system as the Exchange server.
C. Update power shell cmdlets to include the IP address of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server.
D. Stop the Exchange host controller service, start the incremental backup, and start the Exchange
server.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA
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NO.1 Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. DES
B. IDEA
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartReporter
C. WebUI
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.3 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server
as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Hybrid Installation
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: C

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NO.5 Message digests use which of the following?
A. SHA-1 and MD5
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. DES and RC4
Answer: C

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NO.6 You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and
Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class
Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most
cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to
create this report and outline?
A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.7 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?
A. User Name, Management Server IP , certificate fingerprint file
B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP , LDAP Server IP
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to when the test analyst should
become involved during different lifecycle models?
[K2] 1 credit
A. In a sequential V-model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with coding
B. In Agile projects the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently with coding
C. In a sequential model project the test analyst should start test analysis and design concurrently
with software design
D. In an embedded iterative model the test analyst should expect to be involved in the standard
planning and design aspects
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the MOST important reason why test conditions should be understandable by
stakeholders?
[K2] 1 credit
A. They should be able to review the test conditions and provide feedback to the test analyst
B. They should be able to use them as a basis for designing test cases
C. They should be able to use them to establish traceability to requirements
D. Test documentation should always be understandable by all stakeholders
Answer: A

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NO.3 As a test analyst you are involved in the early stages of an acceptance test for a Product Data
Management system. You are asked to write test designs and test cases based on use cases. An early
version of the system is also already available. It is a known fact that on the implementation level
many things will change (including the user-interface). The tests will be carried by end-users with
much domain knowledge who have also been involved in the project defining the user requirements
and reviewing documentation.
What is the BEST option regarding the level of detail and documentation required for test cases in
the project?
[K4] 3 credits
A. Detailed concrete test cases since many re-runs of the tests are expected
B. Logical test cases supported by concrete test cases to allow for traceability and enable future
changes
C. Concrete test cases only since the end-users have extensive domain knowledge
D. Logical test cases only since the end-user have extensive domain knowledge and many changes
are expected thus reducing testware maintenance effort
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following tasks and responsibilities do NOT belong to that of a test analyst in the
context of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
[K2] 1 credit
A. The test analyst should be able to use the reporting tools
B. The test analyst is responsible for supplying accurate information
C. The test analyst will contribute to the final report at the end of the testing
D. The test analyst should write final test reports objectively
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a type of testing that someone in the role of a test analyst, working
with the test manager, should typically consider and plan for?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Security testing
B. Reliability testing
C. Accessibility testing
D. Performance testing
Answer: C

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NO.6 As a test analyst you are gathering data to support accurate metrics. Which of the following
metrics would be MOST appropriate to use to monitor product quality?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Defects found versus defects expected
B. Tests run and tests passed
C. Test resources spent versus budget
D. Compliance to entry criteria
E. Product risks outstanding and new risks introduced
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which of the following criteria on test progress would enable the business to determine a
likely 'go live' date?
(i) Number of tests planned versus number of tests executed
(ii) Number of high priority defects outstanding
(iii) The test team's timesheets in order to show how much effort has been devoted to testing
(iv) Number of tests passed and number failed
(v) Number of defects found in each development area
(vi) The rate at which defects are being found
[K2] 1 credit
A. (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (vi)
D. (iv), (v), (vi)
Answer: C

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NO.8 Working together with the test manager during test planning, which of the following activities
is NOT expected to be performed by the test analyst?
[K2] 1 credit
A. Review the test estimates of the test manager
B. Review the test plan for non-functional testing
C. Organize adequate test resources
D. Being involved in risk management sessions
Answer: C

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NO.1 In clustered Data ONTAP, which object exposes data to clients?
A. A high-available pair of storage controllers
B. An admin vserver
C. A node vserver
D. A data vserver
Answer: D

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NO.2 When a cluster is in quorum, what portion of participating nodes are healthy?
A. Two thirds
B. Simple majority
C. Three quarters
D. Half
Answer: B

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NO.3 With regards to maintaining cluster quorum, epsilon functions as a:
A. Master node
B. Duplicated management database
C. Secondary node
D. Tie-breaker
Answer: D

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NO.4 With clustered Data ONTAP 8.2 or later, which SAN component will no longer be supported?
A. Windows Server 2012
B. vSphere 5.1
C. Veritas DMP
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.2
E. AIX 7.1
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which parameter must the cluster administrator properly define when configuring an iSCSI
logical interface in Data ONTAP 8.1 Cluster-Mode and later?
A. data-access
B. data-address
C. data-protocol
D. data-routing
E. No parameter needs to be defined as no additional parameter is required.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
http://webobjects.cdw.com/webobjects/media/pdf/netapp/clustered-data-ontap-introduction.pdf?
cm_sp=NAPShowcase-_-Cat7Link3-_-Clustered+Data+ONTAP+Intro

NO.6 FlexCache volumes in clustered ONTAP 8.2 __________.
A. Are fully provisioned
B. Can have Snapshot copies
C. Can be moved
D. Are sparsely-populated volumes
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which resource is associated with all logical interfaces?
A. cluster
B. cluster-routes
C. group-routes
D. port
E. VServer-routes
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196817/html/network/interface/create.html

NO.8 In clustered Data ONTAP 8.2, what is the maximum number of cluster nodes if any SAN
protocols are being used?
A. 2 node
B. 4 nodes
C. 6 nodes
D. 8 nodes
E. 10 nodes
F. 24 nodes
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which line item field is filled automatically by the sort key field of a master record (G/L
account,
customer, or vendor)?
A. Item text
B. Assignment
C. Amount in document currency
D. Number of the invoice to which the transaction belongs
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have two house banks. Each house bank has three bank accounts.
How many separate G/L accounts do you recommend the customer creates in the chart of
accounts?
A. Six – one for each combination of house bank and bank account
B. One for all postings
C. Two – one for each house bank
D. Three – one for each bank account
Answer: A

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NO.3 For reports in Asset Accounting, which object do you have to use and, where necessary,
customize to determine the sort level and/or the summation level?
A. Depreciation area
B. Sort key
C. Sort variant
D. Valuation area
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your company currently uses internal number ranges for documents. You are rolling out your
system in a new country. It is a legal requirement in this country to have external document
numbering on vendor invoices (currently document type KR). You have copied the number ranges
from the existing company code to the new company code.
Which Customizing settings do you have to make to meet this requirement and have a minimal
effect on the existing system configuration?
A. Mark a new document number range as external and assign it to the document type KR.
B. Create a new external document type and assign the number range 51 to the new document
type.
C. Create a new document type and a new external number range interval as external. Assign the
new number range to the new document type.
D. Mark existing number range interval 51 as external for the new company code.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following accounts are updated directly?
A. Accounts in the group chart of accounts
B. Accounts in the operating chart of accounts
C. Accounts in the master chart of accounts
D. Accounts in the country chart of accounts
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company-code cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same fiscal year variant is used for all company codes.
B. The same currency is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which of the following task types are supported by the Closing Cockpit or Schedule Manager?
(Choose three)
A. Spreadsheets
B. Transactions
C. Reconciliation keys
D. Notes (as a reminder or milestone)
E. Programs with or without variant
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 To which of the following does an asset class apply?
A. To all company codes in a controlling area
B. To all company codes in an instance (client-independent)
C. To all company codes in a client
D. To all company codes within a client, which share the same chart of accounts
Answer: C

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NO.1 You have made changes to the design files used for an article in a published folio. You need to
get these changes into the published folio. What must you do?
A. Save the InDesign files, update the article in Folio Builder, then press Notify in Folio Producer.
B. Save the InDesign files, unpublish the folio, then republish the folio.
C. Update the article in Folio Builder, then press Update in Folio Producer.
D. Update the article in Folio Builder, then press Publish in Folio Producer.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When should you use ITunes Connect test users?
A. For testing retail content in a developer-version application.
B. For testing retail content in a distribution-version application.
C. For testing free content In an enterprise-signed application.
D. For testing free content in a distribution-version application.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://hetzel.net/ 2013-02-12 /itunes-connect-test-users/

NO.3 You want to create DPS apps for the Apple App Store, Google Play Store, and Amazon
Appstore. Which statement about required certificates is true?
A. You can use the same signed .pi 2 certificate file for Apple App Store and Amazon App Store but
not Google Play Store.
B. You can use the same signed .pi 2 certificate file for Google Play Store and Amazon Appstore but
not Apple App Store.
C. You can use the same signed .pl2 certificate file for Apple App Store, Google Play Store, and
Amazon Appstore.
D. You can use the same signed .pl2 certificate file for Apple App Store and Google Play Store but
not Amazon App Store.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Adobe ID you specify in the Title ID field of the DPS App Builder must have which role
assigned to it to be able to build the viewer?
A. The Admin role
B. The DPS App Builder role
C. The Application role
D. The Integrator ID role
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have built a folio without signing in to the Folio Builder panel. You want to share the folio
with a colleague.
You sign in to the Folio Builder panel. What must you do next to share the folio?
A. Select the folio in the Folio Builder panel and use the panel menu to choose Import, then choose
Share in the Folio Builder panel menu.
B. Select the folio in the Folio Builder panel and use the panel menu to choose upload to Folio
Producer. Then choose Share in the Folio Builder panel menu.
C. Select the folio in the Folio Builder and choose Share in the Folio Builder panel menu.
D. Select the folio in the Folio Builder and choose Create App in the Folio Builder panel menu.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You share a folio. Which two actions does sharing a folio with another person allow them to
do? (Choose two.)
A. Preview articles in the folio other people have created.
B. Edit article content in the folio other people have created.
C. Share the folio with other people.
D. Add articles to the folio.
E. Publish the folio.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which statement about reports generated using the analytics dashboard is true?
A. They can be exported to SiteCatalyst.
B. They can be emailed to authorized DPS users.
C. They can be exported to IDML
D. They can be only viewed in the analytics dashboard.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement about the Horizontal Swipe Only option is the most accurate?
A. Horizontal Swipe Only makes the article scroll smoothly between pages.
B. Horizontal Swipe Only is NOT supported in articles with PDF image format.
C. You CANNOT publish a folio in which different articles have different Horizontal Swipe Only
settings.
D. You swipe left and right to view different pages of an article, NOT up and down.
Answer: D

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NO.1 During a Vblock System logical build, which two management components within Unified
Computing System Manager (UCSM) require configuration with an IP address? (Choose two.)
A. fabric extender
B. fabric interconnect
C. UCSM
D. Cisco Nexus 5108 chassis
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which protocol is used to provide unified file storage connectivity to a Vblock System 320?
A. FCoE
B. IP
C. iSCSI
D. FC
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are deploying a Vblock System and you are unable to log in to the vCenter server using
single sign-on (SSO).
Which two steps should be verified? (Choose two.)
A. Log in credentials are correct.
B. vCenter server is licensed.
C. vCenter services are started.
D. The single sign-on server is licensed.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An ESXi host connected to a Vblock System 720 storage array requires a new 2 TB LUN.
According to VCE best practice, which type of device must be created to add to the host?
A. 4 member striped meta
B. 4 member concatenated meta
C. 8 member striped meta
D. 8 member concatenated meta
Answer: C

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NO.5 During a Vblock System logical build, which three configuration changes require Unified
Computing System Manager (UCSM) access? (Choose three.)
A. fabric interconnect interfaces
B. ESXi host Network Time Protocol
C. service profiles
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. UCS Smart Call Home
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 During a Vblock System 320 deployment, the customer wants to disassociate four half-width
blades in a single chassis for a future project.
Which tool is used to perform this compute reconfiguration?
A. vSphere
B. CIMC
C. Unisphere
D. UCSM
Answer: D

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NO.7 After the installing the Cisco Nexus 1000V, the administrator uses the command show svs
connections.
This command shows the connection status of which component?
A. ESXi host
B. vCenter server
C. Secondary Virtual Supervisor Module
D. VMware Update Manager (VUM)
Answer: B

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NO.8 For bare metal deployments, which statement ensures VCE is able to provide reasonable-effort
support?
A. The ratio of bare metal to virtualized hosts cannot be more than 40 percent.
B. A minimum of five virtualized hosts must be enabled.
C. Bare metal workloads are run on separate physical spindles, disk groups, and pools.
D. Systems cannot include hypervisor technologies other than VMware.
Answer: C

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NO.1 A digital signature is simply a message that is encrypted with the public key instead of the
private key.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.2 What type of session hijacking attack is shown in the exhibit?
A. Cross-site scripting Attack
B. SQL Injection Attack
C. Token sniffing Attack
D. Session Fixation Attack
Answer: D

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NO.3 You visit a website to retrieve the listing of a company's staff members. But you can not find it
on the website. You know the listing was certainly present one year before. How can you retrieve
information from the outdated website?
A. Through Google searching cached files
B. Through Archive.org
C. Download the website and crawl it
D. Visit customers' and prtners' websites
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Archive.org mirrors websites and categorizes them by date and month depending on the crawl time.
Archive.org dates back to 1996, Google is incorrect because the cache is only as recent as the latest
crawl, the cache is over-written on each subsequent crawl. Download the website is incorrect
becausethat's the same as what you see online. Visiting customer partners websites is just bogus.
The answer is then Firmly, C, archive.org

NO.4 An attacker is attempting to telnet into a corporation's system in the DMZ.
The attacker doesn't want to get caught and is spoofing his IP address.
After numerous tries he remains unsuccessful in connecting to the system.
The attacker rechecks that the target system is actually listening on Port 23 and he verifies it with
both nmap and hping2. He is still unable to connect to the target system. What could be the reason?
A. The firewall is blocking port 23 to that system
B. He needs to use an automated tool to telnet in
C. He cannot spoof his IP and successfully use TCP
D. He is attacking an operating system that does not reply to telnet even when open
Answer: C

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NO.5 Rebecca has noted multiple entries in her logs about users attempting to connect on ports
that are either not opened or ports that are not for public usage. How can she restrict this type of
abuse by limiting access to only specific IP addresses that are trusted by using one of the built-in
Linux Operating System tools?
A. Ensure all files have at least a 755 or more restrictive permissions.
B. Configure rules using ipchains.
C. Configure and enable portsentry on his server.
D. Install an intrusion detection system on her computer such as Snort.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
ipchains is a free software based firewall for Linux. It is a rewrite of Linux's previous IPv4 firewalling
code, ipfwadm. In Linux 2.2, ipchains is required to administer the IP packet filters. ipchains was
written because the older IPv4 firewall code used in Linux
2.0 did not work with IP fragments and didn't allow for specification of protocols other than TCP ,
UDP , and ICMP .

NO.6 Which cipher encrypts the plain text digit (bit or byte) one by one?
A. Classical cipher
B. Block cipher
C. Modern cipher
D. Stream cipher
Answer: D

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NO.7 What information should an IT system analysis provide to the risk assessor?
A. Management buy-in
B. Threat statement
C. Security architecture
D. Impact analysis
Answer: C

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NO.8 To see how some of the hosts on your network react, Winston sends out SYN packets to an IP
range. A number of IPs respond with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established he
sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. Winston has done this to see how his intrusion
detection system will log the traffic. What type of scan is Winston attempting here?
A. Winston is attempting to find live hosts on your company's network by using an XMAS scan.
B. He is utilizing a SYN scan to find live hosts that are listening on your network.
C. This type of scan he is using is called a NULL scan.
D. He is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on your network.
Answer: D

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NO.1 An administrator is upgrading a vSphere Distributed Switch. The existing switch is version
5.0 and the administrator wants to upgrade to the latest version possible. The environment contains
several ESXi 5.1 hosts.
Which two options are available to ensure that the upgraded switch will be compatible with these
hosts? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
B. Upgrade the ESXi 5.1 hosts to version 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.5
C. Upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to 5.1
D. Upgrade the ESXi host switches to 5.5, then upgrade the vSphere Distributed Switch to
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two precautions should a vSphere administrator take before increasing the size of a
VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)
A. Unmount the datastore
B. Perform a rescan to ensure that all hosts see the most current storage
C. Quiesce I/O on all disks involved
D. Shut down all virtual machines stored in the datastore
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that,
if installed, will decrease the need for virtual machine reboots following VMware Tools upgrades?
A. 5.5
B. 5.1
C. 5.0
D. 4.1
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter
Servers configured with linked mode?
A. Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On with Linked Mode
Answer: B

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NO.5 What two IT infrastructure components are virtualized by vSphere Essentials? (Choose two.)
A. Networks
B. Applications
C. Storage
D. Management
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 An administrator attempts to install vCenter Single Sign-On Server. The installer returns an
error message indicating that the installation failed. Prior to the installation, all setup prerequisites
were met. The administrator has generated a vCenter Server Single Sign-On support bundle.
Which two files should the administrator analyze to determine the cause of the failure?
(Choose two.)
A. Server\utils\logs\imsTrace.log
B. Server\utils\logs\install.txt
C. %TEMP%\utils\logs\vminst.log
D. %TEMP%\vminst.log
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is planning a vSphere infrastructure with the following specific networking
requirements:
The ability to shape inbound (RX) traffic
Support for Private VLANs (PVLANs)
Support for LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol)
What is the minimum vSphere Edition that will support these requirements?
A. vSphere Essentials Plus
B. vSphere Standard
C. vSphere Enterprise
D. vSphere Enterprise Plus
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Answer: B

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