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Exam Code: 2M00001A
Exam Name: Selling Avaya Contact Center Solutions for IP Office - APSS Online Test
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Last Update: 01-29,2015

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Exam Code: 2U00210A
Exam Name: APSS Unified Communications Online Test
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2M00001A - Selling Avaya Contact Center Solutions for IP Office - APSS Online Test

Synopsis
This curriculum test evaluates your understanding of how to sell Avaya Contact Center Solutions for IP Office. Please read the questions thoroughly before answering. Some questions are complex and may need to be read twice in order to be understood completely and answered correctly. The assessment has 40 questions and the minimum passing score is 75%.


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NO.1 Essential or Preferred Support Advantage co-delivery offers are available for which of these IP
Office in a branch deployments?
A. Standalone deployment
B. Distributed deployment
C. Centralized deployment
D. Mixed deployment
Answer: A

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Reference:
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101004861

NO.2 Meeting Exchange 6.2 included multiple feature enhancement;. Which two of the following ate
Meeting Exchange 6.2 feature enhancements? (Choose two.)
A. Administration of Meeting Exchange by Avaya Aura" System Manager
B. Web Collaboration Agent
C. Microsoft Lync integration
D. Use of Dialogic boards for recording in Meeting Exchange servers reservationless conferences
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 In a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure {VDI), Avaya VDI Communicator addresses the UC needs of
the LAN attached knowledge worker. How dose the Avaya VDI Communicator address the quality and
scalability issues of a communications device in a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure?
A. Processing media on the one X Communicator running on virtual machines in the data center
B. Installing VDI Communicator on virtual machines in the data center
C. Installing one X Communicator on the same machine with Avaya VDI Communicator
D. Processing media on the thin client
Answer: C

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NO.4 For the Microsoft register Windows platform. one-X register Communicator can be deployed in
two different ways: standalone and integrated with CES (client enablement services). With the
integrated deployment, users have access to additional unified communication (UC) capabilities.
What three additional UC capabilities are accessible to users? (Choose three.)
A. Message waiting indication
B. Intelligent presence
C. Ad-hoc audio conferencing
D. Video calling
E. Synchronized contacts
F. Visual voicemail
G. Audio bridge conference control
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.5 You are helping Julio, an account executive, prepare for his Avaya Aura* presentation to his
client. Although he understands that the architecture is a foundation for UC {unified
communications) or CC (contact center) solutions, he wants to know what other purpose makes
Avaya Aura" different from other architectures. (Choose one.)
A. It offers a people-centric architecture that enables business collaboration functionality.
B. It provides the latest four layer or tier architecture.
C. It delivers a next generation, technology-centric architecture that provides advanced functionality.
D. It creates a connection-based architecture that provides people-centric collaboration by replacing
a client's legacy solution.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://www.avaya.com/usa/documents/avaya-aura-suite-licensing-version-2uc7218_nov2014.pdf

NO.6 In preparation for a customer meeting Claudia is learning about the architecture needed of the
Avaya Flare* Experience. Which two statements are correct about the Avaya Flare@ Experience
when it is deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Is seen by Session Manager as a SIP endpoint
B. Registers with Avaya Aura* Session Manager
C. Requires one-X Portal for presence
D. Provides audio, web and video conferencing via Avaya Aura@ Conferencing 6
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 3104
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NO.1 Since there is no license required for a guest user, Charlene wants to know what is needed to
scale a system with remote users. You tell her that it is based on the number of users in a desktop
server. Select the correct statement about the capacity of a Desktop Server.
A. The Desktop Server can be virtualized, using VMware@, and has a capacity of 1000 concurrent
connections per instance.
B. The Desktop Server can be virtualized, using VMware@, and has a capacity of 500 concurrent
connections per instance.
C. The Desktop Server can be virtualized, using VMware@, and has a capacity of 250 concurrent
connections per instance.
D. The Desktop Server cannot be virtualized and has a capacity of 500 concurrent connections per
server.
E. The Desktop Server cannot be virtualized and has a capacity of 1000 concurrent connections per
server.
F. The Desktop Server cannot be virtualized and has a capacity of 250 concurrent connections per
server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the built-in feature of Scopia@ Management (iView) that allows the creation of
multiple organizations with separate administrators?
A. Administrator redundancy
B. Cost center segmentation
C. Shared system
D. Multi-tenant
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Service provider, or multi-tenant, deployments enable one installation to manage multiple
organizations. All the organizations can reside as tenants within a single service provider deployment.
For example, Scopia Management can manage a separate set of users for
each organization, separate local administrators, separate bandwidth policies etc. all within a single
multi-tenant installation. Reference: http://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100173473

NO.3 Your customer, Steve, has a Lync 2010 environment and they have been using it for point to
point videoconferencing. They want to be able to have multipoint videoconferences and Steve wants
to know about any differences between using the Lync A/V MCU and the Scopia@ Elite MCU. You tell
him that adding the Scopia Gateway for Microsoft@ Lync is required to use the Elite MCU, but their
existing standard Microsoft licensing with point-topoint video should be sufficient. What are two
other differences in the user experience between the A/V MCU and the Elite MCU? (Choose 2)
A. 1080p HD resolution is only available with the Elite MCU
B. 1080p HD resolution is only available with the Lync A/V MCU
C. Continuous Presence of 28 endpoints is only available using the Lync A/V MCU
D. Continuous Presence of 28 endpoints is only available using the Elite MCU
E. With content sharing, Lync clients can simultaneously see both the content or data and the video
with the Elite MCU
F. With content sharing, Lync clients can simultaneously see both the content or data and the video
with the Lync A/V MCU
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Pat went to a local user's group meeting and heard that Scopia@ offers a family of serial and
ISDN gateways, but she is still confused about the purpose or function of these gateways. What is the
basic function of the ISDN gateway?
A. It allows H.323 to H.320 connectivity near the MCU location.
B. It adds H.460 support to H.323 endpoints for firewall traversal over ISDN.
C. It allows H.323 to H.324 connectivity near the MCU location.
D. It allows H.323 to SIP connectivity near the MCU location.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have proposed a Scopia@ desktop client and mobile solution for Vince, an SMB customer
who has been buying Polycom@.
What are two of the differences between a Scopia and a Polycom solution that you want to talk to
Vince about? (Choose 2)
A. The Scopia Desktop client and mobile support HTTPS tunneling.
B. The Polycom CMA Desktop does not support H.264 SVC (scalable video coding).
C. The Polycom m100 SMB solution supports HD content sharing.
D. The Polycom Real Presence Mobile supports Android phones and a few tablets.
E. The Polycom Real Presence Mobile supports being a presenter of content.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Background
You have been working with a small independent "Telco" or service provider. They currently provide
voice and Internet services to rural businesses and residences and want to offer a cloud-based
videoconference service. Since they sell bandwidth, the customer will encourage their clients to have
HD conference calls. Their voice service has a reputation for extremely high reliability and they want
their video service to support the same expectation; nearly zero downtime. In order to meet these
expectations, the customer wants you to propose monitoring for this new cloud-based service.
Current infrastructure
This service provider is using Avaya networking equipment and Communication Manager (CM) based
solutions. Most of the CM systems are 5.2.1. Some entire towns or even counties get their service
from single redundant Communication Manager solution.
Objective
Although they already have applications to show that there is enough bandwidth to provide the
service to a customer, they want specific video monitoring software that they can use to pretest
immediately before a call, verify the actual quality during a call, track and trend the quality of the
service provided, and easily troubleshoot issues. To test the acceptance and feasibility of this cloud-
based service, the customer is going to offer Scopia@ videoconferencing for a small county where
they are the primary voice and data/Internet provider. They are planning for a trial of 100 businesses
with a small room system they will provide, install and maintain for the client, 200 users of Scopia
Desktop client, and 100 users of Scopia Mobile. All of their customers will be supported by a cluster
of five load balanced 5230 Elite MCUs located in two different Central Offices. They expect 70 of the
customers to have existing room systems and they will install PathFinder Server and clients as
required. As the designer or sales engineer, what combination of evident products, would you select
to achieve these benefits and meet the client's needs?
A. PreVideo with video enabler, 3 additional agents, VQ Insider, RVMon for 500 devices
B. PreVideo with video enabler, 1 additional agent, VQ Insider, RVMon for 500 devices
C. PreVideo with 3 additional agents, VQ Insider, RVMon for 2000 devices
D. PreVideo with 1 additional agent, VQ Insider, RVMon for 2000 devices
E. PreVideo with 5 additional agents, VQ Insider, RVMon for 2000 devices
F. PreVideo with video enabler, 5 additional agents, VQ Insider, RVMon for 500 devices
Answer: F

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NO.7 Hans, the IT Manager at one of your high-tech customers, calls to tell you that they acquired
another company. This new acquisition has both Tandberg and Cisco telepresence rooms. Although
they would eventually want to reduce the variety of systems, Hans would initially like to have it just
integrated with the existing Polycom@ and LifeSize@ telepresence and the Scopia@ endpoints and
infrastructure you have proposed. So in order to connect to an Elite MCU meet-me conference with
full functionality, which of the following telepresence systems will require a TIP Gateway?
A. Cisco telepresence
B. LifeSize telepresence
C. Tandberg telepresence
D. Polycom telepresence
Answer: A

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Reference: http://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100173478 (page 12, see Important)

NO.8 The Scopia@ Collaboration Suite solution includes both Guest and Named endpoint licenses.
When is the Guest license required?
A. For H.323 based room system endpoints only
B. For SIP based room system endpoints only
C. For any desktop endpoints
D. For room system endpoints not having a named license
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Experience Portal with POM Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 After building an Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system yon choose to install additional
pack, from the Red Hat distribution media (such as mod_nss package from the Servers/Web Servers
section and download updates to existing packages. You now find that you are unable to access AAEP
web administration pages.
Which statement is true?
A. Adding additional software packages not normally required by AAEP may require configuring new
packages to use alternate network ports not reserved by Experience Portal.
B. Updating existing software packages on AAEP servers to newer releases than the ones delivered by
or validated by AAEP installation media is supported and will not impact AAEP operatic upgrades at a
later date.
C. Adding additional software packages on the AAEP servers other than the ones delivered by or
validated by AAEP Installation media is supported and will not impact AAEP operations or upgrades at
a later date.
D. You can install antivirus software on the AAEP servers. Make sure you use on-access scanning
where your antivirus software runs whenever a file is changed. In addition, enable it to start scanning
at the system startup by default. These features will riot interfere with AAEP performance or the time
that it takes for an AAEP system to come back online after a reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) '? SP A or newer on your Avaya Aura
Experience Portal (AAI P) 6.0- You attempt to start the POM services and receive the following
message:
Connection to the database failed. Please configure the database before starting POM server.
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. The password for the PostgreSQL user Postgres is incorrect. Login to Experience Portal Manager
(EPM) from Linux prompt with Postgres user permissions and run psql VoicePortal; alter user
Postgres password 'password'; \q
B. The $CATALINA_HOME/lib/config/voiceportal.properties file information is incorrect. Login to EPM
from Linux prompt with root user permissions and either replace it with a correct copy or run
$AVAYA__HOME Support/VP_Tools/SetDbPassword/SetDbPassword.sh update -u Postgres -p
password.
C. The PostgreSQL database is not running. Login to EPM from Linux prompt with root user
permissions and run "service Postgres ql start
D. The SPOM_HOME/config/PIMHibernate-cfg.xml file information is incorrect. Login to EPM from
Linux prompt with root user permissions and either replace it with a correct copy or run
$POM_HOME/bin/installDB.sh SPOM_HOME.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal 5.x to Avaya Aura Experience Portal 6.0, hut the
license not upgraded. What is the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are preparing to build an Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) software-only system and
have chosen to use Oracle Linux Server Release 6.0 64bit operating system.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Oracle Linux Server software is not an approved operating system for hosting AAEP 6.0 servers.
B. 64 bit operating systems are approved for hosting AAEP servers.
C. Either Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0 32bit or oracle Linux Server Release 6.0 32 bit can be used for
hosting AAEP 6.0 servers.
D. Either fedora core 6 32bit or SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11 32bit can be used for hosting AAEP
6.0 servers.
E. Either Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0 64bit or CentOS 6.0 64bit can be used for hosting AAEP 6.0
servers.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Your customer has configured VoIP connectivity on Avaya Aura Experience Portal. Calls made to
the system are not responding with the correct speech recognition response.
What two items should he checked to resolve this situation? (Choose two)
A. the audio/basic and audio/x-alaw-basic settings In the Web Administration screen
B. the content of the Avaya network log server.log/log
C. the Call Data Summary Report
D. the error logs in the speech recognition server
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 You are preparing to build a large 1200 port Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system and
the client has asked you to protect the information contained in the calls to and from all of the
extended servers.
Which three choices will meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Encrypt H.323 call control between the media Processing Platform (MPP) and the Avaya
Communication Manager server
B. Encrypt audio data to and from the speech servers by using MRCP V2 protocol (Media Resource
Control Protocol) with TLS (Transport Layer Security) enabled
C. Partition the client data network to limit the exposure of certain non-encrypted VoIP components
of AAEP system to the corporate network
D. Disable the HTTPS protocol on your application servers and use HTTP only
E. Encrypt Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) audio data between the MPPs and the Avaya
communication Manager feature server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL
database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a
backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose
three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Which solution takes responsibility for the delivery and operationof part or all of our
customersB2B integration and infrastructure and processes?
A. IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B. IBM Sterling Collaboration Network
C. IBM Sterling B2B Integrator
D. IBM Sterling Managed AS2 Service
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/en/integration-services-basic

NO.2 Which of the following client issues that may arise are pertinent for B2B Cloud and
opportunities?
A. Systems which don't scale
B. Business Partner interactions are not well integrated with other business functions (such as IT)
C. Failure to meet requirements for new / all customers/partners (i.e. Protocols, standards).
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a category of service for IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network?
A. Infrastructure Services AND Visibility Services
B. Community Services
C. Exchange Services
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following productshelps enable high availabilityof trading partner communications
as an optional extension of IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. IBM Sterling File Gateway
B. IBM Sterling Control Center
C. IBM Multi-Enterprise Integration Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Supplier Portal
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following products is designed' for near real time visibility into documents being
processed?
A. Inflight Data Manager
B. Sterling File Transfer Service
C. Services Reporting and Analytics
D. BothA&C
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a capability of IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services?
A. B2B Integration Infrastructure
B. B2B Process Management
C. B2B Visibility
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.1 In the event of a critical process crash on a CP module, when is CP switchover initiated.?
A. within 3 milliseconds
B. prior to core generation
C. upon receipt of a failure log
D. per the power down algorithm
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where is the VSP 9000 log file configured?
A. Menu
B. ACLI
C. Syslog
D. Sysconfig log menu
Answer: B

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NO.3 Routers can learn several routes to a given destination network through several protocols.
Which part of the VSP 9000 uses the host route?
A. Equal Cost Multi Path routing (ECMP)
B. The Routing Table Manager (RTM)
C. the hardware
D. the best destination
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician is configuring a VSP 9000 to run in High Availability (HA) Mode, and needs to set the Open
Shortest Path First (OSPF) hello timers. What is the recommended setting?
A. auto
B. variable
C. 500 milliseconds
D. greater than one second
Answer: D

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NO.5 During a VSP 9000 boot up, the following log message appears:
"Powering off card in slot 12 due to a low power condition."
Which statement describes how that card is brought back in service?
A. Add more power to the chassis.
B. Re-direct power to that card from one of the spare SFmodules.
C. Change the card's priority assignment for the power-down algorithm.
D. Configure the existing power distribution to send enough power to that card.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which multicast activity should be configured on the edge?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
D. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) Snooping and Proxy
Answer: D

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NO.7 Equal Cost MultiPath (FCMP) routes apply to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information
Protocol (RIP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Default and Static routes.
With ECMP, how many equal-cost paths can be configured to the same destination prefix?
A. two
B. up to six
C. up to four
D. up to eight
Answer: D

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NO.8 On a VSP 90O0, Just as VLANs am unique within the system, a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)
is unique. How many VRF instances can a VLAN be associated with?
A. one
B. one petbrouter
C. one per IP interface in the system
D. each customer VRF instance, plus the firewalland communications server VRF instant
Answer: A

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Exam Code: VCP-550
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam
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NO.1 -- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
What action should the vSphere administrator take to allow for a new vApp to be created in the
cluster?
A. Enable Distributed Resource Scheduling on the cluster
B. Create a Resource Pool in the cluster, and create the vApp in the Resource Pool
C. Enable High Availability on the cluster
D. Create a new Datacenter, and create the vApp in the new Datacenter
Answer: A

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NO.2 A security audit has revealed that a virtual machine on vSwitch1 is receiving all traffic sent to
the virtual switch, violating corporate policy. The vSphere administrator examines the properties for
vSwitch1, as shown in the exhibit:
-- Exhibit --- Exhibit -
Which configuration explains why the virtual machine is receiving all traffic sent to vSwitch1?
A. The Production port group has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Accept.
B. vSwitch1 has the Promiscuous Mode policy set to Reject.
C. The Network Failure Detection policy on the Production port group is set to Link Status plus
Beaconing.
D. The Network Failure Detection policy on vSwitch1 is set to Link Status only.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which controller is recommended for high disk I/O workloads?
A. BusLogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the hardware configuration for ESXi hosts participating in a
virtual SAN?
A. The hosts must have identical hardware.
B. Each host must have at least one Solid State Drive (SSD).
C. The hosts must have network attached storage.
D. Each host must have a RAID Controller.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which minor badge scores are used to calculate the Health score in vCenter Operations
Manager?
A. Time remaining, Capacity remaining, Stress
B. Workload, Anomalies, Faults
C. Stress, Faults, Risk
D. Reclaimable Waste, Density
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is setting up a new vSphere environment for application development with
health monitoring and capacity management. The administrator has purchased three servers for the
initial install. The administrator is NOT planning to grow the environment and needs to keep costs as
low as possible.
Which vSphere kit should the administrator use to meet these requirements?
A. vSphere Essentials Kit
B. vSphere Essentials Plus Kit
C. vSphere with Operations Management Standard Acceleration Kit
D. vSphere with Operations Management Enterprise Acceleration Kit
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is accurate when choosing the storage controller for a virtual machine using
the Create New Virtual Machine wizard in custom mode?
A. There is a predetermined controller based on the guest OS, which cannot be changed.
B. A controller is recommended based on the guest OS type. The administrator can choose this
controller or select any other.
C. There is a predetermined controller based on the guest OS, which can only be changed after the
virtual machine is deployed.
D. The controller options presented will be based on the guest OS type. The administrator must
choose one of these options.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A vSphere administrator has been using vSphere in evaluation mode and now wants to deploy
an environment that provides the same features.
Which edition of vSphere provides similar functionality to evaluation mode?
A. Enterprise Plus
B. Enterprise
C. Standard
D. Essentials
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CVA
Exam Name: Certified Valuation Analyst (CVA)
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NO.1 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.2 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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NO.3 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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NO.4 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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Exam Name: International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements about endogenous and external types of liquidity are
accurate?
I. Endogenous liquidity is the liquidity inherent in the bank's assets themselves.
II. External liquidity is the liquidity provided by the bank's liquidity structure to fund its assets and
maturing liabilities.
III. External liquidity is the non-contractual and contingent capital supplied by investors to support
the bank in times of liquidity stress.
IV. Endogenous liquidity is the same as funding liquidity.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, IV
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is generally true of the relationship between a bond's yield and it's time to maturity when
the yield curve is upward sloping?
A. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the lower its yield.
B. The longer the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
C. The shorter the time to maturity of the bond, the higher its yield.
D. There is no relationship between the two
Answer: B

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NO.3 A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures. The risk that the
borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time
horizon typically refers to:
A. Duration of default.
B. Exposure at default.
C. Loss given default.
D. Probability of default.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A financial analyst is trying to distinguish credit risk from market risk. A $100 loan
collateralized with $200 in stock has limited ___, but an uncollateralized obligation issued by a large
bank to pay an amount linked to the long-term performance of the Nikkei 225 Index that measures
the performance of the leading Japanese stocks on the Tokyo Stock Exchange likely has more ___
than ___.
A. Legal risk; market risk; credit risk
B. Market risk; market risk; credit risk
C. Market risk; credit risk; market risk
D. Credit risk, legal risk; market risk
Answer: B

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NO.5 How could a bank's hedging activities with futures contracts expose it to liquidity risk?
A. The futures hedge may not work due to the widening of basis which could result in a loss for the
bank.
B. Prices may move such that a loss results on the hedge.
C. Since futures require margins which are settled every day, the bank could find itself scrambling for
funds.
D. The bank could get exposed to liquidity risk since futures trade on an exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.6 To estimate the responsiveness of a particular equity portfolio to the overall market, a trader
should use the portfolio's
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. CVaR
D. VaR
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following statements regarding collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO) is
incorrect?
A. CMOs have senior tranches which are considered short-term, low-risk instruments by banks
B. CMOs are asset-backed securities that have pools of collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) as
underlying collateral.
C. CMOs are generally less risky investment than CDOs.
D. CMOs are pools of mortgages that are divided according to the timing of cash flows.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following four regulatory drivers for operational risk management includes
risk and control requirements for financial statements in the United States?
A. Basel II Accord
B. Solvency II
C. The Markets in Financial Instruments Directive
D. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: D

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NO.1 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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NO.2 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the diagram provided for this question,
wireless User A is associated with the Aruba AP. The Aruba controller is configured to perform L2
switching.
What will be the wireless user's default gateway?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.4 When an Aruba 6000 controller has two M3 modules installed, for which uses may the modules be
used? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. hot standby operations
B. VRRP backup
C. higher AP density per switch chassis
D. Active-Active masters
Answer: B,C

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NO: 6 Referring to the above screen capture,
which tab tells you which licenses are installed on the controller?
A. Controller Summary
B. All Wlan Controllers
C. Process Logs
D. Inventory
Answer: D

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 7 Which method is NOT supported to provision an Aruba thin AP?
A. Telnet directly to AP
B. SSH to the AP's controller
C. Web interface to the AP's controller
D. Console to AP
Answer: A

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NO: 8 The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B

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Topic 2, Volume B
NO: 9 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. The controller must have a public IP address.
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 10 When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer chooses 'fail through mode'.
What other feature has to be enabled on the controller for this to work?
A. Machine authentication
B. EAP Termination
C. Server group fall through mode
D. MAC authentication
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B

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NO.1 What is one way Case Manager supports dynamic case handling?
A. Case workers can view and start new tasks for a case "on the fly".
B. Case workers can close and reopen tasks as often as they want.
C. Work is routed to case workers based on business rules.
D. Case workers can create comments on cases, documents, and tasks whenever they need.
Answer: A

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Reference:https://www-304.ibm.com/easyaccess/fileserve?contentid=217781(slide 9)

NO.2 What is Content Manager OnDemand "optimized" for?
A. Workflows
B. Content Analytics
C. Individual documents
D. Large scale storage of print output
Answer: C

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&letternum=ENUS 208-357(overview)

NO.3 Which of these are common use cases for OnDemand?
A. Customer Service, eBPP and back office reports
B. Case Management or Advanced Case Management
C. Active data, check in - check out
D. Scanning paper documents to start a workflow
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of these are solutions available using Watson Content Analytics?
A. Customer Insight
B. Crime Analytics
C. Healthcare
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which common retention schedule gaps are resolved by the IBM Records and Retention
Management solution?
A. Linkage of relevant legal citations to each of the record classes
B. Efficient management and application of their retention schedulesacross multiple jurisdictions
C. Enforce certified records management practices on electronically stored information
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is a key benefit of the Legacy Data Cleanup Solution?
A. Identifies sensitive or toxic content
B. Archives data according to its value
C. Maintains a data map of the organization
D. Is a DoD 5015.2 certified records repository
Answer: A

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Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional - Network Virtualization
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NO.1 An administrator manages a TFTP server virtual machine that is connected to a Logical Switch
with a VNI of 7321. The TFTP server has been configured to use port 1069. An NSX Edge Service
Gateway is connected to VNI 7321 and has an uplink interface with access to the physical network.
Assume external users can reach the Service Gateway.
What should the administrator configure to ensure external connections to the TFTP server are
successful?
A. Create a DNAT rule with the original port of 69 and translated port of 1069.
B. Create a SNAT rule with the original port of 1069 and translated port of 69.
C. Create a SNAT rule with the original port of 69 and translated port of 1069.
D. Create a DNAT rule with the original port of 1069 and translated port of 69.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many DHCP pools can be created on the NSX Edge?
A. 2,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
Answer: D

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NO.3 After deploying NSX, an administrator does not see the Networking & Security tab when
connecting to the vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client.
What should the administrator do?
A. Register the NSX Manager with the vCenter Server.
B. Register the NSX Manager with the Inventory Service.
C. The NSX Controllers must be deployed before NSX Manager is available.
D. The NSX Manager must be configured to use Single Sign-On before it will be available.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Endpoint service cannot be leveraged using Service Composer?
A. Antivirus
B. Data Security
C. Layer 2 Bridging
D. Network Introspection
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which component automates the consumption of third-party services and provides mapping
to virtual machines using a logical policy?
A. NSX Manager
B. Cloud Management Platform (CMP)
C. Service Composer
D. NSX Data Security
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding an NSX Edge gateway device configured with a DNS Server?
A. The NSX Edge will forward all DNS requests from virtual machines sent to it to the DNS Server.
B. The NSX Edge configuration will override the DNS Server configured by the NSX Manager.
C. The NSX Edge registers the DNS Server with the NSX Controller.
D. The NSX Edge periodically synchronizes its DNS tables with the primary DNS Server.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which option shows an advantage of implementing logical firewalls in NSX?
A. NSX allows segmentation of virtual machines based upon VM names or user identity.
B. NSX provides traffic forwarding between layer 2 broadcast domains.
C. NSX allows virtual machine traffic to follow multiple paths to a specific destination.
D. NSX provides the ability to provide IPv4 and IPv6 dual stack configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two statements are valid regarding vCloud Networking and Security (vCNS) and NSX?
(Choose two.)
A. Both vCNS and NSX support multiple hypervisor environments.
B. NSX provides support for multiple hypervisor environments, vCNS does not.
C. Both vCNS and NSX support dynamic routing protocols.
D. NSX supports dynamic routing protocols, vCNS does not.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12
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NO.1 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.4 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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NO.5 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer: