2015年7月27日星期一

C2090-312 Training online, C4040-250 PDF VCE

NO.1 Which table characteristic is a good attribute for the exploitation of hash access?
A. At least 20 rows fit on a data page.
B. DB2 uses range scans to access rows in the table.
C. The size of individual rows in the table vary greatly.
D. DB2 uses sequential lookups to access data in the table.
Answer: D


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NO.2 You want to convert a segmented table space into a partition-by-growth table space. You
execute the following ALTER statement:
ALTER TABLESPACE DB1TS1 MAXPARTITIONS 5;
What should be your next step?
A. COPY the table space.
B. REORG the table space.
C. REBUILD all of the indexes.
D. DROP the segmented table space.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two options can be specified in order to access a system-period temporal table for a
specific point in time guaranteeing accurate results?
A. A period-specification placed in the FROM clause of a subselect.
B. A period-specification placed in the WHERE clause of a subselect
C. A SELECT statement predicate against the transaction start ID of the base table.
D. A predicate against the start and end columns of the base table placed in the WHERE clause of a
subselect.
E. A SET of the CURRENT TEMPORAL SYSTEM_TIME special register to a non-null value prior to a
SELECT against the temporal table.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which is NOT a valid privilege/authority for executing CREATE TYPE (array)?
A. SYSADM
B. SYSOPR
C. SYSCTRL
D. CREATEIN on the schema
Answer: A

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NO.5 An Audit report shows that data on the CUSTOMER table was successfully updated by an
unknown USERID.
What other DB2 supplied information could be reviewed to learn more about the updated data?
A. BSDS
B. SYSIBM.SYSPACKDEP
C. DB2 Active and Archive Logs
D. SYSIBM.SYSAUDITPOLICIES
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which DB2 subsystem parameter limits the number of concurrent active TSO requests?
A. IDBACK
B. IDFORE
C. MAXDBAT
D. CONDBAT
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given the following output:
DSNV4011 _DB2D DISPLAY THREAD REPORT FOLLOWS DSNV402I _DB2D ACTIVE THREADS NAME ST A
REQ ID AUTHID PLAN ASID TOKEN DB2CALL T 17039 BBISS BBISS 00AF 19855 TSO T * 3 KSTTEST
KSTTEST 0135 20172 A51OTEST N* 13 CICSTEST 0125 19625 You receive a call that user KSTTEST is
holding resources and needs to be canceled.
Which command should be issued?
A. -CANCEL THREAD( 3)
B. -CANCEL THREAD(20172)
C. -CANCEL USER(KSTTEST)
D. User KSTTEST does not hold an active connection, no way he blocks anything.
Answer: A

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1Z1-807 Dumps PDF, 1Z0-807 Test Answers

NO.1 Which two statements are true about transport-layer security?
A. It is loosely coupled with the transport-layer protocol.
B. It is an end-to-end security mechanism.
C. It prevents the captured data from being replayed at a later time.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are using an open source integration framework in your project. However, key interfaces
do not explicitly define several strange conditions you have repeatedly seen while testing.
Which option is the name given to the anti pattern described above?
A. Composite View
B. Leaky Abstraction
C. Asynchronous Interaction
D. Golden Hammer
Answer: B

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Explanation:
All non-trivial abstractions, to some degree, are leaky.
An abstraction that works most of the time, but where a detail of the underlying complexity cannot
be ignored, thus leaking complexity out of the abstraction back into the software that uses the
abstraction.

NO.3 You are the architect of a web application that uses javaServer Faces (JSF) as a presentation
tier;
and for business processes coded as stateless session beans. When you add new code to the stateless
session beans to address new accounting requirements, without changing the interface, you discover
that the new business processes are being ignored by some of the JSF components.
What might be the cause of this problem?
A. The presentation tier is relying on validation logic in the business tier.
B. The browser is caching out-of-date versions of the JSF components.
C. The business processes are not rigorously encapsulated in the session beans.
D. The new session beans have been deployed incorrectly, and proper deployment will resolve the
problem.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the architect for XYZ bank. XYZ is redesigning their online banking offering and you
need to ensure that the new design follows security best practices for the JEE platform.
Select three security best practices for JEE applications.
A. Schedule regular penetration testing.
B. Log all security related application events.
C. Implement an exception-handling strategy.
D. Encrypt data, both on the wire and at rest.
E. Use both programmatic and declarative security.
F. Treat users as untrusted even when authenticated.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 While analyzing an existing web application, you observe the following issues in the source
code:
-Duplicatecontrol code is scattered throughout various view. -Businessand presentationlogicare
mixed within these view.
The next phase of the project involves refactoring the existing code to address these two issues.
Which design pattern, if employed in the refactoring exercise, would most directly address the two
issues?
A. Service to Worker
B. Dispatcher view
C. DAO
D. Composite View
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.vincehuston.org/j2ee/corepatterns.html(see 'service to worker')

NO.6 Which two functions are essential parts of a service oriented architecture (SOA) infrastructure?
A. The service provider, which executes business logic in a stateless fashion
B. The service consumer, which accesses services from the service repository
C. The service repository, which stores software component metadata
D. The service broker, which delivers well-defined service-level agreements
E. The service look-up facility, which provides a central resource for naming and access
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You are the lead technical designer for a new B2C retail application. A key goal is to minimize
design and build complexity in order to maximize speed to market.
Which three features of JPA make it the most appropriate technology to use in building the
persistence layer of the application?
A. JPA ensures thread safe semantics
B. JPA ensures optimal database access logic
C. JPA does not require an EJB container
D. JPA provides vendor-neutral database access
E. JPA provides ACID semantics
F. JPA provides transparent scalability
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.8 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this
substantial load, the database is over bridged and fails frequently. All data, included critical user
records and temporary session data, is stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a
new database system cannot be installed.
Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. Creating more entity beans to optimize interaction wild the database
B. Refactoring the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. Refactoring the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. Adding more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database.
Answer: C

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2015年7月26日星期日

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NO.1 Configure your Host Name, IP Address, Gateway and DNS.
Host name: station.domain40.example.com
/etc/sysconfig/network
hostname=abc.com
hostname abc.com
IP Address:172.24.40.40/24
Gateway172.24.40.1
DNS:172.24.40.1
Answer:
# cd /etc/syscofig/network-scripts/
# ls
# vim ifcfg-eth0 (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) IPADDR=172.24.40.40
GATEWAY=172.24.40.1
DNS1=172.24.40.1
# vim /etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)
HOSTNAME= station.domain40.example.com
OR
Graphical Interfaces:
System->Preference->Network Connections (Configure IP Address, Gateway and DNS) Vim
/etc/sysconfig/network
(Configure Host Name)

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NO.2 Add 3 users: harry, natasha, tom.
The requirements: The Additional group of the two users: harry, Natasha is the admin group. The user:
tom's login shell should be non-interactive.
Answer:
# useradd -G admin harry
# useradd -G admin natasha
# useradd -s /sbin/nologin tom
# id harry;id Natasha (Show additional group)
# cat /etc/passwd
(Show the login shell)
OR
# system-config-users

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NO.1 You ask a technician to deploy Dynamic CRM Server 2015.
Once the technician completes the deployment you discover that Dynamics CRM Workgroup Server
2015 was deployed.
You need to tell the technician what to use in the future to ensure that the Server edition is
deployed.
What should you tell the technician to use?
A. A different version of Microsoft SQL Server
B. A different product key
C. A different version of Windows Server
D. A different version of the installer
Answer: B

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Explanation:
If have your enterprise key you can just go to deployment manager and change it. Deployment
Manager >> Right Click >> Change Product Key. However, if you are not able to upgrade it by
changing the license key than other option you have is to uninstall CRM Server (Workgroup) and
install enterprise version that you have downloaded from download center.

NO.2 You have an Internet-facing deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains only one server.
Users report that they must add the TCP port number to the URL in the Internet Explorer address bar
to access the Dynamics CRM server.
You need to provide to the users a simple URL that does not contain the TCP port.
What should you do?
A. From the Dynamics CRM server, create a host header.
B. From each user's computer, add the URL to the Local intranet zone.
C. From Active Directory, deploy a Group Policy object (GPO).
D. From the Dynamics CRM server, modify the port settings of the default website.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which data encryption technology does Dynamics CRM 2015 use to encrypt password fields in
system entities?
A. Encrypting File System (EFS)
B. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
C. Bitlocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker)
D. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Microsoft Dynamics CRM uses standard Microsoft SQL Server ; cell level encryption for a set of
default entity attributes that contain sensitive information, such as user names and email passwords.
* The use of SQL TDE - Transparent Data Encryption is a great way to secure your Microsoft Dynamics
CRM systems, especially when they contain sensitive data like credit cards or social security numbers.

NO.4 Which statement correctly describes connectivity to Dynamics CRM 2015 by using a Network
Load Balancing (NLB) cluster?
A. All Dynamics CRM 2015 servers that are members of the cluster must have the same IP address.
B. All Dynamics CRM web application clients will connect to a management IP address that is in the
same subnet as the Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
C. All Dynamics CRM 2015 servers that are members of the cluster must have the Failover Clustering
feature installed.
D. All Dynamics CRM web application clients will connect to a virtual IP address that redirects
connections to several Dynamics CRM 2015 servers.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Configuration example:
Network Load Balanced (NLB) virtual server consisting of the following two nodes:
Front End Server: Running Windows Server and Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server with the
Front End Server role.
Front End Server: Another Windows Server running Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server with the Front
End Server role.
Incorrect:
not C: Failover clustering is configured on SQL Servers not on CRM Front End servers.

NO.5 You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server.
You need to make the deployment available to users on the Internet.
Which action should you perform first from Deployment Manager?
A. Run the Internet-Facing Deployment Configuration Wizard.
B. Configure the Incoming Email setting.
C. Disable the server.
D. Run the Configure Claims-Based Authentication Wizard.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Configure an Internet-facing Deployment using the Configure Internet-Facing Deployment Wizard.

NO.6 You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
Dynamics CRM and Microsoft SQL Server 2014 are installed on the same server. The Microsoft
Dynamics CRM 2015 Reporting Extensions are not installed.
You need to identify which action can be performed.
Which action should you identify?
A. Run the default reports.
B. Run a custom SQL-based report.
C. Upload fetch-based reports.
D. Schedule SQL-based reports to run.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You don't need Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions to run Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
However, if you want to create, use, or schedule reports in Microsoft Dynamics CRM, you must install
Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions. Additionally, you have to install it if you want to
create an organization or import an organization, such as when you migrate from an earlier version of
Microsoft Dynamics CRM by using Deployment Manager.

NO.7 You are responsible for a large global deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 for users located in
France and the United States.
All of the users have client computers that run Windows 8.1 and have Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013
for Outlook installed. The base language is English.
You plan to upgrade Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook to the most recent version.
The users in France request that their base language be French.
You successfully upgrade Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook for the users in the United States.
The upgrade for the users in France fails.
You need to identify the cause of the upgrade failure.
What should you identify?
A. You can upgrade the client only if the base languages match.
B. You failed to install the French language pack for Windows before you started the upgrade.
C. You failed to install the French language pack on the server.
D. You failed to set the base language on the server to French.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
To upgrade CRM for Outlook, the base language of CRM 2015 for Outlook must match the base
language of CRM 2013 for Outlook.

NO.8 You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored
in the email message header, such as the sender and the recipient.
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Answer: D

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Explanation:
When an incoming email message is processed by the Email Router, the system extracts information
associated with the email message subject, sender address, and recipients' addresses that link the
email activity to other Microsoft Dynamics CRM records. This correlation process, also known as
smart matching, uses the following criteria to match received email message information to email
activities:
*Subject matching. Prefixes, such as RE: or Re:, and letter case are ignored. For example,
email message subjects with Re: hello and Hello would be considered a match.
*Sender and recipient matching. The system calculates the number of exact sender and recipient
email addresses in common.
When the matching process is complete, the system selects the owner and the object of the incoming
email message.

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NO.1 A customer needs faster response time from their database server and is considering
purchasing POWERS. They are familiar with Easy Tier, and have heard that they can use it locally on
some servers.
Which feature(s) would enable this function?
A. Enhanced backplane (EJOP)
B. Standard backplane (EJON)
C. Enhanced backplane (EJOP) with the Split backplane feature (EJOS)
D. Standard backplane (EJON) with optional SSD cage (EJTM)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is used to provide basic deployment and management firmware updates, host monitoring
and Virtual Machine templates of Power KVM hosts from a GUI?
A. virsh
B. PowerVC
C. Kimchi
D. HMC
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has a requirement for four partitions, each with 1TB of Storage They want to put a
new S814 machine in. but only have 4U available in the rack.
Which POWER8 option accomplishes this?
A. Order a 6-core machine with the Expanded Function backplane with (18) SFF SAS 283GB drives, all
the drives owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
B. Order a 6-core machine with the Split backplane, with each side having (4) 283GB drives for two
partitions and two sets of EJ03 Disk Controllers each connected to a 5887 with (4) 283GB disks each
for the other two partitions.
C. Order a4-core machine with the Expanded Function backplane with (10) SFF SAS 571GB drives, all
the drives owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
D. Order a 4-core machine with the Split backplane with (18) SFF SAS 283GB drives, all the drives
owned by VlO Server and then allocated to each partition.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature is recommended to move memory resources from one LPAR to another?
A. Dynamic LPAR operation
B. Active Memory Sharing
C. Active Memory Expansion
D. Live Partition Mobility
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer will purchase an SB24 server to replace a Power 520 with IBM I V5R4. Middleware
integration and securing business critical data is important to the customer.
What will allow the customer to support all of the requirements?
A. Trusted Firewall and Trusted Surveyor
B. DB2 Row and Column Access Control
C. PowerSC
D. Tivoli Directory Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Customers to migrate to the 6-core Power6 520 S814, Which backplane RAID 5 provides the
best performance ?
A. detachable back with 6 + 6 SFF-3 bracket and the second SAS controller
B. with ( 12 ) SFF-3 bracket and integrated SAS storage controller backplane
C. with ( 18 ) SFF-3 bracket and dual SAS controllers and write cache storage backplane
D. detachable back with PCIe3 12GB Cache RAID SAS adapter and EXP24S of
Answer: B

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NO.7 Customers want to have a mix of the S824 SSD and HDD, using the extended functions ( 18 disks
) backplane (EJOP), and do not want to use the Easy Tier feature.
How to achieve ?
A. Use RAID 5T2 configure all drives.
B. on SSD and HDD ARRAY different configurations.
C. The SSD installed in EJTM 8-Bay 1.8 SSD cage.
D. Use backplane isolation, and put on the back side of the SSD , HDD on the other side .
Answer: B

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NO.8 What standard feature was added to the 4-core S814 to improve the RAS capability when
compared to a 4-core 720?
A. Chipkill Memory
B. RAID 0
C. PCIe Hot Plug Support
D. Alternate Processor Recovery
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/systems/power/hardware/s814/specs.html(See the RAS
feature).

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2015年7月24日星期五

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NO.1 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared
twisted
pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

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NO.3 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is
damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D

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NO.4 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing
an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

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2015年7月23日星期四

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Special Processes in Procurement 8% - 12%
Inventory Management 8% - 12%
Procurement Process 8% - 12%
Master Data and Enterprise Structure 8% - 12%
Purchasing Optimization 8% - 12%
Configuring Master Data and Enterprise Structure 8% - 12%
Physical Inventory < 8%
Experience from Implementation < 8%
Material Requirements Planning < 8%
Valuation and Account Determination < 8%
Logistics Invoice Verification < 8%
Configuring Logistics Invoice Verification < 8%
Configuring Inventory Management < 8%
SAP Overview and Solution Manager < 8% 
 
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NO.1 Which of the following are SAP Solution Manager usage scenarios?(Choose two)
A. Legacy system data mapping
B. Implementation of SAP solutions
C. User productivity monitoring
D. Service desk
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which procurement elements can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?(Choose two)
A. Requests for quotation (RFQ)
B. Contract release orders
C. Purchase orders
D. Delivery schedules
Answer: B,C

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6. Which value of the creation indicator is shown in the tab Contact person when you create a
purchase requisition manually?
A. Production Order
B. Direct procurement
C. Realtime
D. Material requirements planning
Answer: C

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7. Where do you define a fixed vendor for a specific period in time?
A. In the info record at client level (regular vendor)
B. In the quota arrangement at plant level
C. In the source list at plant level
D. In the material master at plant level
Answer: C

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8. What are characteristics of material valuation at the moving average price?(Choose two)
A. If you book a subsequent debit for a quantity higher than the total quantity of valuated stock
then a price difference posting is generated.
B. If the price in the purchase order is different from the moving average price then a price
difference posting is generated at goods receipt.
C. The moving average price is equal to the total value divided by total quantity of valuated stock.
D. Goods movements are always valuated based on the moving average price from the material
master record.
Answer: A,C

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9. You have received an order confirmation from a vendor.
What do you have to do before you can enter the confirmed delivery date and confirmed quantity in
a purchase order item?
A. Set the Goods Receipt indicator.
B. Set the Confirmation Received indicator in the header.
C. Use a confirmation control key in the relevant purchase order item.
D. Set the Acknowledgement Required indicator in the vendor master of the relevant vendor.
Answer: C

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10. What does an account group control when you create vendor master records?(Choose three)
A. The partner determination procedure
B. The definition whether the vendor master record is a one-time account or not
C. The possible data retention levels
D. The reconciliation account in general ledger
E. The possible payment terms
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which are the configuration options that can be defined to post unplanned delivery
costs?(Choose three)
A. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to separate G/L accounts
B. The unplanned delivery costs are to be distributed prorated to calculated invoice items
C. The unplanned delivery costs can be posted by rules defined within a BAdI
D. The unplanned delivery costs are to be posted to a price difference account
E. The unplanned delivery costs are to be split in equal shares across the invoice items
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing?(Choose three)
A. The movement type short text and the reasons for movement
B. The indicator for automatic creation of storage location data in the material master record at the
time of the first goods receipt
C. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with the
movement type
D. The quantity and value updates for postings with the movement type
E. The account modification for transactions and events with active account grouping in the table of
account keys
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 In a vendor master record, you enter a different vendor as a partner with the partner role
(partner function) of Invoicing Party.
What is the function of this partner role in Materials Management?
A. This partner automatically receives copies of all messages relating to purchasing documents.
B. This partner is proposed when you enter an invoice with reference to purchase orders.
C. All unplanned delivery costs with reference to purchase orders are billed to this partner.
D. Return deliveries with reference to purchase orders must be sent to this partner.
Answer: B

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