Avaya 3C00120A the latest exam practice questions and answers

NO.1 Avaya Business Advocate is an entitlement with which CEM Experience Layer product or
solution? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Aura@ Experience Portal
B. Avaya Aura@ Contact Center
C. Avaya Aura@ Call Center Elite
D. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which are customer value statements for ANAV? (Select three.)
A. Improves end-user experience by offering a refreshed look and feel for exist Management System
(CMS) customers.
B. Enables the business to analyze recorded voice content to identify key words and phrases in audio
recordings.
C. Benefits customers that require Roles-based Access (RBAC) and the ability to partition data based
on multiple tenants, or multiple business units sharing the same contact center
D. Stack, typically required by Service Providers, hosted environments, and Ian customers with
multiple sites/business units on shared contact center.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Avaya is bidding for a telecommunications project with the Government of India ("GOI")
through one of its Partners. The GOI official who is in charge of the tender requests that the Partner
arrange a site visit to Avaya premises to check out our facilities. This is part of the bidding process
which authorizes the concerned department to undertake a capability study of all the bidders. The
Partner and Avaya take the three (3) member GOI team on a tour of Avaya facilities and conduct a
demo of our core offerings. At the end of the demo, Partner and Avaya serve refreshments i.e.
tea/coffee and biscuits for the GOI team.
Have the Partner and Avaya conducted themselves in compliance with Avaya policy?
A. No, because by hosting government officials, both the Partner and Avaya attempted to influence
the government to secure a favorable response bid response.
B. Yes, because there was nothing wrong with facilitating the above since it was arranged pursuant to
a legitimate government process (of reviewing bidder capabilities).
Answer: B

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NO.4 Customer supplied servers for Avaya Aura@ Experience Portal require which operating system
(OS)? (Select one.)
A. Mac OS X Server
B. Microsoft Windows 2008 Server
C. Solaris 10
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which product or solution is a required prerequisite for Avaya Aura@ Call Center Elite? (Select
one.)
A. Avaya Aura@ Contact Center
B. Avaya Aura@ Call Center Elite Multichannel
C. Avaya Aura@ Communication Manager
D. Avaya Interaction Center
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following applications/solutions in the Experience layer are supported by Avaya
Control Manager? (Select three.)
A. Avaya Proactive Contact
B. Avaya one-X@ Agent
C. Avaya Call Management System
D. Avaya Aura@ Call Center Elite Multichannel
E. Avaya Interaction Center
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 What Avaya Professional Service for Avaya Control Manager fits this definition?
__________ provides customers with a specialized evaluation of the installation site and the
network, including identifying any discrepancies that need to be rectified prior to implementation.
Network assessments may be performed to determine if the customer's network can handle the \P
solution. (Click and drag the correct option to the space below.)
A. Solution Preparation
B. Solution Design and Development
C. Education and Knowledge Transfer
D. Avaya Program Management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the Proactive products or solutions comes in two configurations, a hard dialer or a
soft dialer? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Outbound Contact Express
B. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
C. Avaya Proactive Contact
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 3C00120A
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Exam Code: HP2-E62
Exam Name: Selling HP Helion Cloud Solutions and Services
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NO.1 Your customer wants to focus on developing applications as quickly as possible. It therefore
needs cloud services that provide virtual machines (VMs) with developer services, such as
middleware and databases. Some applications might need to be deployed on the customer premises
and others in a public cloud.
Which service and deployment model combination should you recommend?
A. SaaS in a managed cloud
B. PaaS in a managed cloud
C. PaaS in a hybrid cloud
D. laaS in a hybrid cloud
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is HP Helion?
A. The network of authorized public cloud partners for HP CloudSystem solutions
B. A series of HP public cloud services for custom, packaged, and enterprise applications
C. The HP cloud portfolio and strategy that empowers customers to build, manage, and consume
cloud Services in a hybrid IT environment
D. The proprietary HP code in HP CloudSystem solutions, which offers an alternative to code based
on OpenStack
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a difference between HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x and
HP CloudSystem Enterprise1?
In other words, what is included in HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x but
not included in HP CloudSystem Enterprise alone?
A. HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x includes HP Helion Development
Platform.
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x includes and is optimized for specific
configurations of HP Converged Infrastructure
C. HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x adds a full version of HP Operations
Orchestration (00).
D. HP CloudSystem Enterprise built on ConvergedSystem 700x adds a full version of HP Cloud Service
Automation (CSA).
Answer: C

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NO.4 HP envisions a "New Style of IT". In the new style, what is the focus of IT?
A. Expanding network infrastructure to better meet users' demands
B. Moving from a purely supportive role to becoming an internal service provider
C. Identifying technologies to help IT improve its role as a support organization
D. Providing consistent services for wired and wireless access
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is purchasing an HP HelionOpenStack solution. The customer's key objective is that
employees can start coding cloud applications as quickly as possible using a variety of scripting
languages. Which other solution should you offer?
A. HP Cloud Service Automation
B. HP Helion Development Platform
C. HP Operations Orchestration
D. HP HelionOpenStack Community Edition
Answer: C

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NO.6 How do HP Helion Education Services help your customer'?
A. They provide classes that employees can take to extend their skills in the design, implementation,
and support of cloud services
B. They provide help in developing a business case for moving to the cloud
C. They provide a blueprint for building a cloud solution that meets business requirements
D. They provide interactive workshops that help employees understand the New Style of IT and how
it helps businesses achieve their goals.
Answer: C

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• IBM Certified Deployment Professional - SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Change Configuration Release Management

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NO.1 Which action can be performed In the Administrative view of the Change Window Schedule
tab?
A. merge change windows
B. change the frequency of the change window
C. add a Configuration Item to a change window
D. modify the start and end time of a change window
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which phase of the Configuration Item audit process is the configuration process record
created?
A. Define
B. Create
C. Accept
D. Execute
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Asset Configuration Item (CI) reconciliation task automatically links assets with CIs. Which
statement is true regarding task functionality?
A. It links Actual CIs with respective Deployed Assets.
B. It links Authorized CIs with respective Authorized Assets.
C. It creates Actual Assets if a match cannot be found to existing Actual CIs.
D. It creates Actual CIs if a match cannot be found to existing Deployed Assets.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two actions must be done in an activity to update the progress of a release and then
autocomplete the activity?
A. Flow Action must be defined.
B. Assisted Workflow must be defined.
C. Flow Control? flag must be checked.
D. Flow Action Assist? flag must be checked.
E. Suspend Flow Control? flag must be checked.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which file in IBM Tivoli Integration Composer contains the property to filter importing actual
Configuration Items by location tag for IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager
V7.2.1.1?
A. fusion.properties
B. ccmdb.properties
C. logging.properties
D. jdbcinfo.properties
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two tools can be used to add a new attribute to an Authorized Configuration Item (CI)
classification?
A. CI application
B. Actual CI application
C. Classification application
D. IBM Deployer's Workbench
E. IBM Tivoli Integration Composer
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What are two ways to check the status of a software distribution?
A. check the Bulletin Board
B. review the Workflow History
C. Launch in Context to the external system
D. look in the Plans tab of the Releases application
E. click the Get Status button in the Deployments application
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which application in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 is used to link an existing software
image Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB to the Definitive Media Library (DML) repository?
A. CI
B. DML
C. Changes
D. Releases
Answer: D

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Exam C_AUDSEC_731 questions and answers

NO.1 Which transaction can you use to create background jobs?
A. SU10
B. PFCG
C. SM36
D. SA38
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following objects are used when you transport roles?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. User assignments
B. Personalization
C. Profiles
D. Templates
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the single sign-on (SSO) methods for SAP NetWeaver AS-based systems requires
configuration of the Secure Login Server, Security Login Client, and the authentication server?
A. SSO with Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS)
B. SSO with X.509 certificate
C. SSO with SAP logon tickets
D. SSO with Kerberos
Answer: B

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NO.4 You run change document RSUSR100 (user and authorization log).
Which of the following are selection criteria for changed header data?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Language
B. Administrator Lock Set
C. Cost Center
D. Accounting Number
E. User Group
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Which of the following can you use to connect directory services to Central User Administration
(CUA) of an SAP system?
A. Directory Services Markup Language (DSML)
B. Directory Access Protocol (X.500 DAP)
C. Application Link Enabling (ALE)
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are components of SAP NetWeaver Identity Management?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Data Synchronization Engine
B. Central User Administration
C. Virtual Directory Server
D. Identity Services
E. Identity Center
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following is a function of user type System?
A. It allows multiple logons.
B. It checks whether the password has expired.
C. It checks whether the password is initial.
D. It allows dialog logon.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are to configure a compliant identity management process flow.
Which of the following components from SAP Access Control and SAP NetWeaver Identity
Management (SAP NetWeaver ID Management) are required?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. SAP NetWeaver ID Management - Identity Center (IC) and Virtual Directory Server (VDS)
B. SAP BusinessObjects - Enterprise Role Management (ERM) and Superuser Privilege Management
(SPM)
C. SAP NetWeaver ID Management - Dispatcher Runtime Engine and Event Agent Service
D. SAP BusinessObjects - Risk Analysis and Remediation (RAR) and Compliant User Provisioning (CUP)
components
Answer: A,D

Configure Authorization Environment > 12%
Advanced User Administration 8% - 12%
Users and Authorization Audit 8% - 12%
Security Assessment 8% - 12%
Secure Infrastructure 8% - 12%
Basic Role Maintenance 8% - 12%
Key Capabilities of SAP NetWeaver < 8%
Customize and Usage of AIS < 8%
System Audit < 8%
User Maintenance < 8%
Authorization Concepts for Identity Management < 8%
Advanced Role Maintenance < 8%

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two options are two characteristics of the single-tier headend architecture for DMVPN
designs? (Choose two.)
A. The mGRE and crypto functions are on the same router.
B. Each DMVPN cloud has two different headend routers for high availability purposes.
C. It is used in dual-cloud topologies for spoke-to-spoke connectivity.
D. It only supports hub-and-spoke connectivity.
E. Spokes cannot be used as RP in multicast deployments.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Your company designed a network to allow server VLANs in a data center to span all access switches.
In the design, Layer 3 VLAN interfaces and HSRP are configured on the aggregation switches. In which
three ways should the design of the STP domain be optimized for server and application
performance? (Choose three.)
A. Use loop guard on access ports.
B. Use PortFast on access ports.
C. Use root guard on access ports.
D. Align Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding paths.
E. Use BPDU Skew Detection on access ports.
F. Explicitly determine root and backup root bridges.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 A company would like to distribute a virtual machine (VM) hosting cluster between three data
centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP
only and the new design should use the existing WAN. Which Layer 2 tunneling technology do you
recommend?
A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM
Answer: C

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NO.4 On a large-scale DMVPN network design, what are two DMVPN characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. DMVPN can interoperate with other vendors' equipment.
B. DMVPN supports multicast replication at the hub.
C. DMVPN supports non-IP protocols.
D. DMVPN supports dynamic partial- or full-mesh tunnels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
A service provider using IS-IS has designed this network with all core links at the Layer 2 control
plane. How will they adjust the design to reduce the flooding of update packets?
A. Change the area type of the links to be level-1-2 to allow level-1 updates.
B. Change the network type of the links from broadcast to point-to-point.
C. Use IS-IS mesh groups.
D. Configure SPF timers to be more aggressive so that updates are more quickly cleared from the
queue.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which technique can be used to deploy IPv6 services in an IPv4-only routed backbone
network?
A. NAT64 at the peering locations
B. 6PE in the backbone network
C. 6RD on CE routers and 6RD border relays at the peering locations
D. dual-stack lite and NAT44 at the peering locations
Answer: C

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NO.7 A junior engineer is implementing one of your optical designs and asks about CWDM (Coarse
Wavelength Division Multiplexing). Which two features describe CWDM? (Choose two.)
A. typically used over long distances, but requires optical amplification
B. allows up to 32 optical carriers to be multiplexed onto a single fiber
C. shares the same transmission window as DWDM
D. uses the 850-nm band
E. Passive CWDM devices require no electrical power.
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new
network design.
Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that
are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?
A. Incremental Shortest Path First
B. Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D. partial route calculation
E. Fast-Flooding
Answer: C

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Cisco certification 400-051 exam targeted training

Exam Number	400-051 CCIE Collaboration
Associated Certifications	CCIE Collaboration
Duration	120 minutes (90 - 110 questions)
Available Languages	English
Register	Pearson VUE
Exam Policies	Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial	Review type of exam questions

This exam validates that candidates have the skills to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot enterprise collaboration and communication networks.

NO.1 When Single Inbox is configured, what will happen to an email message that was moved from
any Outlook folder to the Voice Outbox folder?
A. The email message will be delivered to Cisco Unity Connection.
B. The email message will be kept in the Voice Outbox folder.
C. The move will fail because the operation is not supported.
D. The email message will be moved to the Deleted Items folder.
E. The email message will be permanently deleted and will not be retrievable.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM-12 DSP hardware based on?
A. C542
B. C549
C. C5510
D. C5421
E. C5409
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement about G.722.1 codec support on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is
true?
A. It is always preferred by Cisco Unified Communications Manager over G.711.
B. It is a high-complexity wideband codec.
C. It operates at bit rates of 15.2 and 13.3 kb/s.
D. It is supported for SIP and SCCP devices.
E. It is supported for SIP and H.323 devices.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
All displayed devices are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager server and
the phones are engaged in an active call. Assume that the provided configurations exist at the phone
line level and multicast MOH is disabled cluster wide.
Which description of what happens when the user of IP phone B presses the Transfer soft key is true?
A. IP phone A user hears audio source 3 from MOH server A.
B. IP phone A user hears audio source 4 from MOH server B.
C. IP phone A user hears audio source 3 from MOH server B.
D. IP phone A user hears tone on-hold beep tones.
E. IP phone A user hears no on-hold music or beep tones.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which procedure uses H.225 messages to exchange H.245 Master-Salve Determination
information?
A. H.323 Fast Connect
B. H.245 tunneling
C. H.225 tunneling
D. H.323 early media
E. H.245 terminal capability set
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which design restriction applies to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session
Management Edition clustering over the WAN deployment with extended round-trip times in Cisco
Unified CM 9.1 and later releases?
A. SIP and H.323 intercluster trunks are supported.
B. Only SIP trunk is supported.
C. SIP trunks and H.323 gateways are supported.
D. A minimum of 1.544 Mb/s bandwidth is required for all traffic between any two nodes in the
cluster.
E. Only RSVP agents can be configured and registered to the SME cluster as media resources.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two types of line codes are configurable for an E1 PRI controller on a Cisco IOS router?
(Choose two.)
A. CRC4
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. HDB3
E. ESF
F. SF
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 When DSP oversubscription occurs on a Cisco IOS router using DSP modules that are based on
the C5510 chipset, what will happen when an analog phone connected to a FXS port goes off-hook?
A. A fast busy tone will be played.
B. A slow busy tone will be played.
C. A network busy tone will be played.
D. A dial tone will be played, but digits will not be processed.
E. No tone will be played.
Answer: E

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070-465 Practice Test, 70-465 Latest Dumps

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server

• Published: June 11, 2012
• Languages: English, French, German, Japanese, Spanish, Chinese (Simplified)
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft SQL Server
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

NO.1 You need to recommend a solution for the deployment of SQL Server 2014. The solution must
meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a new instance of SQL Server 2014 on the server that hosts the SQL Server 2008 instance.
B. Upgrade the existing SQL Server 2008 instance to SQL Server 2014.
C. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement Failover Clustering.
D. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement database mirroring.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Scenario: The databases must be available if the SQL Server service fails. Failover Clustering Overview
Windows Server Failover Clustering (WSFC) with SQL Server

NO.2 What should you recommend?
A. Revoke user permissions on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate data. Grant the
users the EXECUTE permission on the stored procedures.
B. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the
tables. Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
C. Deny the users SELECT permission on the tables. Create views that retrieve data from the tables.
Grant the users the SELECT permission on the views.
D. Deny the users the SELECT permission on the tables. Create stored procedures that manipulate
data. Grant the users the EXECUTE permission on the stored procedures.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
* Security Requirements
You must provide users with the ability to execute functions within the ERP application,
without having direct access to the underlying tables.

NO.3 You need to recommend a solution for Application1 that meets the security requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Signed stored procedures
B. Certificate Authentication
C. Encrypted columns
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Answer: A

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Explanation:
* Scenario: / Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named
Application1 / Application developers must be denied direct access to the database tables.
Applications must be denied direct access to the tables. Tutorial: Signing Stored Procedures with a
Certificate

NO.4 You need to recommend a solution that meets the data recovery requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A differential backup
B. A transaction log backup
C. Snapshot isolation
D. A database snapshot
Answer: D

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Explanation:
How Database Snapshots Work

NO.5 You need to recommend changes to the ERP application to resolve the search issue. The
solution must minimize the impact on other queries generated from the ERP application.
What should you recommend changing?
A. The collation of the Products table
B. The index on the ProductName column
C. The collation of the ProductName column
D. The data type of the ProductName column
Answer: C

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Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa214408(v=sql.80).aspx

NO.6 You need to recommend a solution that resolves the missing data issue. The solution must
minimize the amount of development effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Denormalize the Products table.
B. Denormalize the OrderDetails table.
C. Normalize the OrderDetails table.
D. Normalize the Products table.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* Scenario: / Missing Data Issues Customers report that when they make a price change in the
Products table, they cannot retrieve the price that the item was sold for in previous orders. / The
current database schema contains a table named OrderDetails. The OrderDetails table contains
information about the items sold for each purchase order. OrderDetails stores the product ID,
quantities, and discounts applied to each product in a purchase order. The product price is stored in a
table named Products. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa933055(v=sql.80).aspx

NO.7 You need to recommend a disk monitoring solution that meets the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. An audit
B. A dynamic management view
C. A maintenance plan
D. A SQL Server Agent alert
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Dynamic Management Views and Functions (Transact-SQL) You need to recommend a solution to
improve the performance of usp.UpdateInventory. The solution must minimize the amount of
development effort.

NO.8 You need to recommend a solution that addresses the backup issue. The solution must
minimize the amount of development effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Indexed views
B. Filegroups
C. Table partitioning
D. Indexes
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 070-465
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